Explanation:
if there is a deficit or a surplus
if the budget is good
Answer:a
a) Vo/Vi = - 3.4
b) Vo/Vi = - 14.8
c) Vo/Vi = - 1000
Explanation:
a)
R1 = 17kΩ
for ideal op-amp
Va≈Vb=0 so Va=0
(Va - Vi)/5kΩ + (Va -Vo)/17kΩ = 0
sin we know Va≈Vb=0
so
-Vi/5kΩ + -Vo/17kΩ = 0
Vo/Vi = - 17k/5k
Vo/Vi = -3.4
║Vo/Vi ║ = 3.4 ( negative sign phase inversion)
b)
R2 = 74kΩ
for ideal op-amp
Va≈Vb=0 so Va=0
so
(Va-Vi)/5kΩ + (Va-Vo)74kΩ = 0
-Vi/5kΩ + -Vo/74kΩ = 0
Vo/Vi = - 74kΩ/5kΩ
Vo/Vi = - 14.8
║Vo/Vi ║ = 14.8 ( negative sign phase inversion)
c)
Also for ideal op-amp
Va≈Vb=0 so Va=0
Now for position 3 we apply nodal analysis we got at position 1
(Va - Vi)/5kΩ + (Va - Vo)/5000kΩ = 0 ( 5MΩ = 5000kΩ )
so
-Vi/5kΩ + -Vo/5000kΩ = 0
Vo/Vi = - 5000kΩ/5kΩ
Vo/Vi = - 1000
║Vo/Vi ║ = 1000 ( negative sign phase inversion)
Answer:
y ≈ 2.5
Explanation:
Given data:
bottom width is 3 m
side slope is 1:2
discharge is 10 m^3/s
slope is 0.004
manning roughness coefficient is 0.015
manning equation is written as

where R is hydraulic radius
S = bed slope



P is perimeter 

![Q = (2+2y) y) \times 1/0.015 [\frac{(3+2y) y}{(3+2\sqrt{5} y)}]^{2/3} 0.004^{1/2}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=Q%20%3D%20%282%2B2y%29%20y%29%20%5Ctimes%201%2F0.015%20%5B%5Cfrac%7B%283%2B2y%29%20y%7D%7B%283%2B2%5Csqrt%7B5%7D%20y%29%7D%5D%5E%7B2%2F3%7D%200.004%5E%7B1%2F2%7D)
solving for y![100 =(2+2y) y) \times (1/0.015) [\frac{(3+2y) y}{(3+2\sqrt{5} y)}]^{2/3} \times 0.004^{1/2}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=100%20%3D%282%2B2y%29%20y%29%20%5Ctimes%20%281%2F0.015%29%20%5B%5Cfrac%7B%283%2B2y%29%20y%7D%7B%283%2B2%5Csqrt%7B5%7D%20y%29%7D%5D%5E%7B2%2F3%7D%20%5Ctimes%200.004%5E%7B1%2F2%7D)
solving for y value by using iteration method ,we get
y ≈ 2.5