Ask question

Ask question

All categories

3 years ago

7

Doubly ionized lithium Li2+ (Z = 3) and triply ionized beryllium Be3+ (Z = 4) each emit a line spectrum. For a certain series of

lines in the lithium spectrum, the shortest wavelength is 40.5 nm. For the same series of lines in the beryllium spectrum, what is the shortest wavelength?

1 answer:

EleoNora [17]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

tex]\lambda_{Be}[/tex] = 22.78 nm

Explanation:

Bohr's model for the hydrogen atom has been used by other atoms with a single electric charge by changing the number of charges by the charge of the new atom (atomic number)

$E_{n}$ = k e² / 2a₀ (1 /n²)

ao = h'² / k m e² h' = h/2πi

For another atom with a single electron in the last layer

a₀ ’= h’² / k m (Ze)²

a₀ ’= a₀ / Z²

Therefore, when replacing in the equation

$E_{n}$ = - Z² Eo/n²

E₀ = 13,606 eV

The transition occurs when the electron stops from one level to another

$E_{n}$ - $E_{m}$ = Z² E₀ (1 / n² - 1 / m²) = Z² ΔE

Let's relate this expression to the wavelength

c = λ f

E = h f

E = h c /λ

h c / λ = Z² ΔE

λ = 1 / Z² (hc / ΔE)

λ = 1 / Z² λ_hydrogen

Let's apply this last equation to our case

Lithium Z = 3

$E_{n}$ = - 9 Eo / n²

40.5 10-9 = 1/9 λ_hydrogen

Beryllium Z = 4

λ = 1/16 λ_hydrogen

Let's write our two equations is and solve

40.5 10-9 = 1/9 λ_hydrogen

tex]\lambda_{Be}[/tex] = 1/ 16 λ_hydrogen

40.5 10⁻⁹ = 1/9 (16 $\lambda_{Be}$ )

tex]\lambda_{Be}[/tex] = 40.5 9/16

tex]\lambda_{Be}[/tex] = 22.78 nm

You might be interested in

A 403.0-kg copper bar is melted in a smelter. The initial temperature of the copper is 320.0 K. How much heat must the smelter p

aleksklad [387]

The answer is 2.49 x 10^5 KJ. This was obtained (1) use the formula for specific heat to achieve Q or heat then (2) get the energy to melt the copper lastly (3) Subtract both work and the total energy required to completely melt the copper bar is achieved.

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Which element in the 18th column of the periodic table (shown below) has the largest radius?

Alex17521 [72]

Answer: Rn :)))) no explanation needed

3 0

3 years ago

A particle with a charge of − 5.10 nC is moving in a uniform magnetic field of B⃗ =−( 1.20 T )k^. The magnetic force on the part

marta [7]

Answer:

Explanation:

Given that,

Charge q=-5.10nC

Magnetic field B= -1.2T k

And the magnetic force

F =−( 3.30×10−7N )i+( 7.60×10−7N )j

Let the velocity be V(xi + yj + zk)

Then, the force is given as

Note i×i=j×j×k×k=0

i×j=k. j×i=-k

j×k=i. k×j=-i

k×i=j. i×k=-j

F= q(v×B)

−( 3.30×10−7N )i+( 7.60×10−7N )j =

q(xi + yj + zk) × -1.2k

−( 3.30×10−7N )i+( 7.60×10−7N )j=

q( -1.2x i×k - 1.2y j×k - 1.2z k×k)

−( 3.30×10−7N )i+( 7.60×10−7N )j=

q( 1.2xj - 1.2y i )

−( 3.30×10−7N )i+( 7.60×10−7N )j=

q( -1.2y i + 1.2x j)

So comparing comparing coefficients

let compare x axis component

-( 3.30×10−7N )i=-1.2qy i

−3.30×10−7N = -1.2qy

y= -3.3×10^-7/-1.2q

y= -3.3×10^-7/-1.2×-5.10×10^-9)

y=-53.92m/s

Let compare y-axisaxis

7.6×10−7N j = 1.2qx j

7.6×10−7N = 1.2qx

x= 7.6×10^-7/-1.2q

x= 7.6×10^-7/1.2×-5.10×10^-9)

x=-124.18m/s

a. Then, the velocity of the x component is x= -124.18m/s

b. Also, the velocity component of the y axis is =-53.92m/s

c. We will compute

V•F

V=-124.18i -53.92j

F=−( 3.30×10−7 N )i+( 7.60×10−7 N )j

Note

i.j=j.i=0. Also i.i = j.j =1

V•F is

(-124.18i-53.92j)•−(3.30×10−7N)i+(7.60×10−7 N )j =

4.1×10^-5 - 4.1×10^-5=0

V•F=0

d. Angle between V and F

V•F=|V||F|Cosx

0=|V||F|Cos

Cosx=0

x= arccos(0)

x=90°

Since the dot product is zero, from vectors , if the dot product of two vectors is zero, then the vectors are perpendicular to each other

6 0

3 years ago

A 1.40-kg ball tied to a string fixed to the ceiling is pulled to one side by a force F→ . where L = 1.40 kg. What is the tensio

riadik2000 [5.3K]

Answer:

T=13.72N

Explanation:

The tension before the ball is released have no angle is in rest at the same axis of the weight so:

∑F=0

Using Newton law in this case the ball is tied so tension before become to swing is

∑F=FN-T=0

$T=F_{N}$

$T=m*g$

$T=1.40Kg*9.8\frac{m}{s^2}$

$T=13.72N$

8 0

3 years ago

A 10 g particle undergoes SHM with an amplitude of 2.0 mm and a maximum acceleration of magnitude 8.0 multiplied by 103 m/s2, an

Nat2105 [25]

Answer:

a) $T=0.0031416s$

b) $v_{max}=6.283\frac{m}{s}$

c) $E=0.1974J$

d) $F=80N$

e) $F=40N$

Explanation:

1) Important concepts

Simple harmonic motion is defined as "the motion of a mass on a spring when it is subject to the linear elastic restoring force given by Hooke's Law (F=-Kx). The motion experimented by the particle is sinusoidal in time and demonstrates a single resonant frequency".

2) Part a

The equation that describes the simple armonic motion is given by $X=Acos(\omega t +\phi)$ (1)

And taking the first and second derivate of the equation (1) we obtain the velocity and acceleration function respectively.

For the velocity:

$\frac{dX}{dt}=v(t)=-A\omega sin(\omega t +\phi)$ (2)

For the acceleration

$\frac{d^2 X}{dt}=a(t)=-A\omega^2 cos(\omega t+\phi)$ (3)

As we can see in equation (3) the acceleration would be maximum when the cosine term would be -1 and on this case:

$A\omega^2=8x10^{3}\frac{m}{s^2}$

Since we know the amplitude A=0.002m we can solve for $\omega$ like this:

$\omega =\sqrt{\frac{8000\frac{m}{s^2}}{0.002m}}=2000\frac{rad}{s}$

And we with this value we can find the period with the following formula

$T=\frac{2\pi}{\omega}=\frac{2 \pi}{2000\frac{rad}{s}}=0.0031416s$

3) Part b

From equation (2) we see that the maximum velocity occurs when the sine function is euqal to -1 and on this case we have that:

$v_{max}=A\omega =0.002mx2000\frac{rad}{s}=4\frac{m rad}{s}=4\frac{m}{s}$

4) Part c

In order to find the total mechanical energy of the oscillator we can use this formula:

$E=\frac{1}{2}mv^2_{max}=\frac{1}{2}(0.01kg)(6.283\frac{m}{s})^2=0.1974J$

5) Part d

When we want to find the force from the 2nd Law of Newton we know that F=ma.

At the maximum displacement we know that X=A, and in order to that happens $cos(\omega t +\phi)=1$ , and we also know that the maximum acceleration is given by::

$|\frac{d^2X}{dt^2}|=A\omega^2$

So then we have that:

$F=ma=mA\omega^2$

And since we have everything we can find the force

$F=ma=0.01Kg(0.002m)(2000\frac{rad}{s})^2 =80N$

6) Part e

When the mass it's at the half of it's maximum displacement the term $cos(\omega t +\phi)=1/2$ and on this case the acceleration would be given by;

$|\frac{d^2X}{dt^2}|=A\omega^2 cos(\omega t +\phi)=A\omega^2 \frac{1}{2}$

And the force would be given by:

$F=ma=\frac{1}{2}mA\omega^2$

And replacing we have:

$F=\frac{1}{2}(0.01Kg)(0.002m)(2000\frac{rad}{s})^2 =40N$

8 0

3 years ago