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8_murik_8 [283]
3 years ago
9

Why do some clusters of galaxies emit x-rays?

Physics
1 answer:
Alenkasestr [34]3 years ago
8 0
It may be the result of galaxy collisions. Hope that helped
You might be interested in
A projectile of mass m is launched with an initial velocity vector v i making an angle θ with the horizontal as shown below. The
sergeinik [125]
Angular momentum is given by the length of the arm to the object, multiplied by the momentum of the object, times the cosine of the angle that the momentum vector makes with the arm. From your illustration, that will be: 
<span>L = R * m * vi * cos(90 - theta) </span>

<span>cos(90 - theta) is just sin(theta) </span>
<span>and R is the distance the projectile traveled, which is vi^2 * sin(2*theta) / g </span>

<span>so, we have: L = vi^2 * sin(2*theta) * m * vi * sin(theta) / g </span>

<span>We can combine the two vi terms and get: </span>

<span>L = vi^3 * m * sin(theta) * sin(2*theta) / g </span>

<span>What's interesting is that angular momentum varies with the *cube* of the initial velocity. This is because, not only does increased velocity increase the translational momentum of the projectile, but it increase the *moment arm*, too. Also note that there might be a trig identity which lets you combine the two sin() terms, but nothing jumps out at me right at the moment. </span>

<span>Now, for the first part... </span>

<span>There are a few ways to attack this. Basically, you have to find the angle from the origin to the apogee (highest point) in the arc. Once we have that, we'll know what angle the momentum vector makes with the moment-arm because, at the apogee, we know that all of the motion is *horizontal*. </span>

<span>Okay, so let's get back to what we know: </span>

<span>L = d * m * v * cos(phi) </span>

<span>where d is the distance (length to the arm), m is mass, v is velocity, and phi is the angle the velocity vector makes with the arm. Let's take these one by one... </span>

<span>m is still m. </span>
<span>v is going to be the *hoizontal* component of the initial velocity (all the vertical component got eliminated by the acceleration of gravity). So, v = vi * cos(theta) </span>
<span>d is going to be half of our distance R in part two (because, ignoring friction, the path of the projectile is a perfect parabola). So, d = vi^2 * sin(2*theta) / 2g </span>

<span>That leaves us with phi, the angle the horizontal velocity vector makes with the moment arm. To find *that*, we need to know what the angle from the origin to the apogee is. We can find *that* by taking the arc-tangent of the slope, if we know that. Well, we know the "run" part of the slope (it's our "d" term), but not the rise. </span>

<span>The easy way to get the rise is by using conservation of energy. At the apogee, all of the *vertical* kinetic energy at the time of launch (1/2 * m * (vi * sin(theta))^2 ) has been turned into gravitational potential energy ( m * g * h ). Setting these equal, diving out the "m" and dividing "g" to the other side, we get: </span>

<span>h = 1/2 * (vi * sin(theta))^2 / g </span>

<span>So, there's the rise. So, our *slope* is rise/run, so </span>

<span>slope = [ 1/2 * (vi * sin(theta))^2 / g ] / [ vi^2 * sin(2*theta) / g ] </span>

<span>The "g"s cancel. Astoundingly the "vi"s cancel, too. So, we get: </span>

<span>slope = [ 1/2 * sin(theta)^2 ] / [ sin(2*theta) ] </span>

<span>(It's not too alarming that slope-at-apogee doesn't depend upon vi, since that only determines the "magnitude" of the arc, but not it's shape. Whether the overall flight of this thing is an inch or a mile, the arc "looks" the same). </span>

<span>Okay, so... using our double-angle trig identities, we know that sin(2*theta) = 2*sin(theta)*cos(theta), so... </span>

<span>slope = [ 1/2 * sin(theta)^2 ] / [ 2*sin(theta)*cos(theta) ] = tan(theta)/4 </span>

<span>Okay, so the *angle* (which I'll call "alpha") that this slope makes with the x-axis is just: arctan(slope), so... </span>

<span>alpha = arctan( tan(theta) / 4 ) </span>

<span>Alright... last bit. We need "phi", the angle the (now-horizontal) momentum vector makes with that slope. Draw it on paper and you'll see that phi = 180 - alpha </span>

<span>so, phi = 180 - arctan( tan(theta) / 4 ) </span>

<span>Now, we go back to our original formula and plug it ALL in... </span>

<span>L = d * m * v * cos(phi) </span>

<span>becomes... </span>

<span>L = [ vi^2 * sin(2*theta) / 2g ] * m * [ vi * cos(theta) ] * [ cos( 180 - arctan( tan(theta) / 4 ) ) ] </span>

<span>Now, cos(180 - something) = cos(something), so we can simplify a little bit... </span>

<span>L = [ vi^2 * sin(2*theta) / 2g ] * m * [ vi * cos(theta) ] * [ cos( arctan( tan(theta) / 4 ) ) ] </span>
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Describe five things that you do to make yourself feel warmer or cooler.
stira [4]
Buy a fan or heater, get a blanket, take a shower, go outside, go by the fireplace
7 0
3 years ago
Which of the following means that an image is real?
DochEvi [55]
To declare an image is real you would call it “authentic”
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Show that the Mass spring system executes simple harmonic motion(SHM)?​
murzikaleks [220]

Explanation:

Show that the motion of a mass attached to the end of a spring is SHM

Consider a mass "m" attached to the end of an elastic spring. The other end of the spring is fixed

at the a firm support as shown in figure "a". The whole system is placed on a smooth horizontal surface.

If we displace the mass 'm' from its mean position 'O' to point "a" by applying an external force, it is displaced by '+x' to its right, there will be elastic restring force on the mass equal to F in the left side which is applied by the spring.

According to "Hook's Law

F = - Kx ---- (1)

Negative sign indicates that the elastic restoring force is opposite to the displacement.

Where K= Spring Constant

If we release mass 'm' at point 'a', it moves forward to ' O'. At point ' O' it will not stop but moves forward towards point "b" due to inertia and covers the same displacement -x. At point 'b' once again elastic restoring force 'F' acts upon it but now in the right side. In this way it continues its motion

from a to b and then b to a.

According to Newton's 2nd law of motion, force 'F' produces acceleration 'a' in the body which is given by

F = ma ---- (2)

Comparing equation (1) & (2)

ma = -kx

Here k/m is constant term, therefore ,

a = - (Constant)x

or

a a -x

This relation indicates that the acceleration of body attached to the end elastic spring is directly proportional to its displacement. Therefore its motion is Simple Harmonic Motion.

5 0
3 years ago
The latitude of the city of Arlington is about 32.7357°. Calculate the following: (a) The angular speed of the Earth. (b) The li
julia-pushkina [17]

Answer:

Explanation:

a ) The earth rotates by 2π radian in 24 x 60 x 60 s

so angular speed ( w )  = 2π / (24 x 60 x 60)  = 7.268 x  10⁻⁵ rad / s

b ) Linear speed of city of Arlington ( v )  = w r = w R Cosλ where R is radius of the earth and λ is latitude .

v = 7.268 x 10⁻⁵ x  6.371 x 10⁶ cos 32.7357

389.5 m /s

acceleration = w² r = w² R Cos 32.7357

= (7.268 x 10⁻⁵ )² x 6.371 x 10⁶ x cos 32.7357

=283.08 x 10⁻⁴ m/s²

c) velocity ratio =

w r /w R =

R cos 32.73/ R  

= Cos 32.73

= 0.84 .

6 0
3 years ago
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