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3 years ago

Please help me!!!!!!!!!!Which is true about the actual mechanical advantage of a machine?

Physics

2 answers:

Maurinko [17]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

It is less than the ideal mechanical advantage

Explanation:

Hi, the actual mechanical advange is less than the ideal. This happens because when making calculations and designs of a machine, the scientist or engineer makes a lot of suppositions that doesn't always reflect the reality perfectly.

That difference between the suppositions and the reality is shown in the difference between the actual mechanical advantage and the ideal.

The porcentual difference between this two is what is called the efficiency

Hoochie [10]3 years ago

3 0

B it increases with greater friction

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3 years ago

The sun's energy begins as what form of energy?

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3 years ago

3) How far will 20 N of force stretch a spring with a spring constant of 140 N/m?

muminat

Answer:

7 meters, 2.8 meters

Explanation:

work done (nm) = force (n) * distance (m)

140= 20 * m

140/20 = m

m=7 meters

140= 50 * m

140/50 = m

m= 2.8 meters

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2 years ago

If two particles have equal kinetic energies, are their momenta necessarily equal? explain.

Mandarinka [93]

Answer:

No the given statement is not necessarily true.

Explanation:

We know that the kinetic energy of a particle of mass 'm' moving with velocity 'v' is given by

$K.E=\frac{1}{2}mv^{2}$

Similarly the momentum is given by $m\times v$

For 2 particles with masses $m_{1},m_{2}$ and moving with velocities $v_{1},v_{2}$ respectively the respective kinetic energies is given by

$K.E_{1}=\frac{1}{2}m_{1}v_{1}^{2}$

$K.E_{2}=\frac{1}{2}m_{2}v_{2}^{2}$

Similarly For 2 particles with masses $m_{1},m_{2}$ and moving with velocities $v_{1},v_{2}$ respectively the respective momenta are given by

$p_{1}=m_{1}\times v_{1}$

$p_{2}=m_{2}\times v_{2}$

Now since it is given that the two kinetic energies are equal thus we have

$\frac{1}{2}m_{1}v_{1}^{2}=\frac{1}{2}m_{2}v_{2}^{2}\\\\(m_{1}v_{1})\times v_{1}=(m_{2}v_{2})\times v_{2}\\\\p_{1}\times v_{1}=p_{2}\times v_{2}\\\\\therefore \frac{p_{1}}{p_{2}}=\frac{v_{2}}{v_{1}}............(i)$

Thus we infer that the moumenta are not equal since the ratio on right of 'i' is not 1 , and can be 1 only if the velocities of the 2 particles are equal which becomes a special case and not a general case.

5 0

3 years ago