the correct answer is B. 1.27
Mechanical advantage of a lever is simply the ratio of the effort arm to the load arm.Effort arm is the distance from the pivot to the point of application of force while load arm is the distance of the lord from the pivot.
therefore, in this question, the effort arm is 0.28m while the load arm is 0.22 m. MA is calculated as follows: MA=effort arm/load arm
=0.28m/0.22m=1.27
Answer:
a) 
Now we can replace the velocity for t=1.75 s

For t = 3.0 s we have:

b) 
And we can find the positions for the two times required like this:
And now we can replace and we got:

Explanation:
The particle position is given by:

Part a
In order to find the velocity we need to take the first derivate for the position function like this:

Now we can replace the velocity for t=1.75 s

For t = 3.0 s we have:

Part b
For this case we can find the average velocity with the following formula:

And we can find the positions for the two times required like this:
And now we can replace and we got:

A. Getting a full set of valence electrons
Explanation:
The best description of the end result of chemical bonding for most atoms is the getting of a full set of valence electrons.
Atoms reacts with one another in order to complete valence electronic shell.
- The valence electron shell is the outermost energy level of an atom.
- It is from this energy level that electrons are lost or gained to form bonds.
- All atoms wants to be like the noble gases whose valence electronic shell is completely filled up
- This is the crux of chemical bonding
- The attraction that is produced from the interaction leads to bond formation
learn more:
Chemical bond brainly.com/question/10903097
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Answer:
The magnetic field is
Explanation:
From the question we are told that
The mass of the metal rod is 
The current on the rod is 
The distance of separation(equivalent to length of the rod ) is 
The coefficient of kinetic friction is 
The kinetic frictional force is 
The constant speed is 
Generally the magnetic force on the rod is mathematically represented as

For the rod to move with a constant velocity the magnetic force must be equal to the kinetic frictional force so

=> 
=> 
=> 