Answer:
800 units of product A must be sold for break-even
Explanation:
Given, weighted-average contribution is $100.
Total break-even units = Total fixed cost / Weighted-average contribution
Total break-even units = $400,000 / $100
Total break-even units = 4,000 units
Product A break-even = 4,000 x 20%
Product A break-even = (800 units)
Hence, the correct answer is 800 units.
Answer and Explanation:
a. The computation of depreciation for each of the first two years by the straight-line method is shown below:-
Depreciation
= (Assets cost - Salvage value) ÷ Useful life
= ($171,000 - 0) ÷ 25
= $6,840
For First year = $6,840
For Second year = $6,840
It would be the same for the remaining useful life
b. The computation of depreciation for each of the first two years by the double-declining-balance method is shown below:-
First we have to determine the depreciation rate which is shown below:
= One ÷ useful life
= 1 ÷ 25
= 4%
Now the rate is double So, 8%
In year 1, the original cost is $171,000, so the depreciation is $13,680 after applying the 8% depreciation rate
And, in year 2, the ($171,000 - $13,680) × 8% = $12,585.60
Vary in total in direct proportion to changes in the activity level. As this cost increase or decrease, the output level.
<h3>What is the
variable cost dependency?</h3>
Variable costs are proportional to output, resulting in a fixed sum per unit produced. It indicates that when more products are manufactured, variable costs will rise; conversely, if fewer products are manufactured, variable costs will fall.
Thus, option C is correct.
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Answer:
The second gamble has the higher expected value. EV = 4
Explanation:
In betting, expected value can be defined as (Amount won per bet * probability of winning) – (Amount lost per bet * probability of losing)
For the first gamble:

For the second gamble:

This means that Cal is expected to earn $4 for each $20 waged on the second gamble while he is expected to break even in the first gamble.
Therefore, the second gamble has the higher expected value.
Answer:
$(94,179)
Explanation:
Particulars Year 0 Year 1 Year 2
Cash flows ($1,500,000) A$1,000,000 A$2,000,000
DCF 14% 1 0.8772 0.7695
Present Values 1500,000 A$877,200 A$ 1,538,935
Conversion 1 0.55 0.60
P V in US$ (1,500,000) 482,460 923,361
Therefore Net Present Value = 482,460 +923,361 - 1,500,000 = $(94,179)