1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
Free_Kalibri [48]
3 years ago
8

A rectangular wooden block measures 10.0 cm × 4.00 cm × 2.00 cm. When the block is placed in water, it floats horizontally, with

its bottom face 1.65 cm below the surface. What is the density of the wood?
Physics
1 answer:
Alex Ar [27]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

825 kgm⁻³

Explanation:

ρ = density of wood = ?

ρ' = density of water = 1000 kgm⁻³

V = volume of wood = 10 x 4 x 2 = 80 cm³ = 80 x 10⁻⁶ m³

V' = Volume of water displaced = 10 x 4 x 1.65 = 66 cm³ = 66 x 10⁻⁶ m³

Using equilibrium of force in vertical direction

Force of buoyancy = Weight of the wood

ρ' V' g = ρ V g

ρ' V' = ρ V  

(1000) (66 x 10⁻⁶) = ρ (80 x 10⁻⁶)

ρ = 825 kgm⁻³

You might be interested in
The force of attraction between a ball is F=.........×10^-¹¹
DIA [1.3K]

Answer:

4.45×10¯¹¹ N

Explanation:

From the question given above, the following data were obtained:

Mass of ball (M₁) = 4 Kg

Mass of bowling pin (M₂) = 1.5 Kg

Gravitational constant (G) = 6.67×10¯¹¹ Nm²/Kg²

Distance apart (r) = 3 m

Force of attraction (F) =?

The force of attraction between the ball and the bowling pin can be obtained as follow:

F = GM₁M₂ / r²

F = 6.67×10¯¹¹ × 4 × 1.5 / 3²

F = 4.002×10¯¹⁰ / 9

F = 4.45×10¯¹¹ N

Therefore, the force of attraction between the ball and the bowling pin is 4.45×10¯¹¹ N

8 0
3 years ago
If a 400-mm diameter pipe with a pipe roughness coefficient of 100 flows full of pressurized water with a head loss of 0.4 ft pe
RoseWind [281]

Answer:

Q = 913.9 gpm

Explanation:

The Hazen Williams equation can be written as follows:

P = \frac{4.52\ Q^{1.85}}{C^{1.85}d^{4.87}}

where,

P = Friction Loss per foot of pipe = \frac{0.4}{1000\ ft} = 4 x 10⁻⁴

Q = Flow Rate in gallon/min (gpm) = ?

d = pipe diameter in inches = (400 mm)(0.0393701 in/1 mm) = 15.75 in

C = roughness coefficient = 100

Therefore,

4\ x \ 10^{-4} = \frac{4.52\ Q^{1.85}}{(100)^{1.85}(15.75)^{4.87}}\\\\Q^{1.85} = \frac{4\ x \ 10^{-4}}{1.33\ x\ 10^{-9}} \\\\Q = (300384.75)^\frac{1}{1.85}

<u>Q = 913.9 gpm</u>

5 0
3 years ago
the average american receives 2.28 mSv dose equivalent from radon each year. Assuming you receive this dose, and it all comes fr
Dmitry [639]

Answer:

The approximate number of decays  this represent  is  N= 23*10^{10}  

Explanation:

 From the question we are told that

    The amount of Radiation received by an average american is I_a = 2.28 \ mSv

     The source of the radiation is S = 5.49 MeV \ alpha \ particle

 Generally

            1 \  J/kg = 1000 mSv

   Therefore  2.28 \ mSv = \frac{2.28}{1000} = 2.28 *10^{-3} J/kg

Also  1eV = 1.602 *10^{-19}J

  Therefore  2.28*10^{-3} \frac{J}{kg} = 2.28*10^{-3} \frac{J}{kg}  * \frac{1ev}{1.602*10^{-19} J} = 1.43*10^{16} ev/kg

           An Average american weighs 88.7 kg

      The total energy received is mathematically evaluated as

        1 kg ------> 1.423*10^{16}ev \\88.7kg  --------> x

Cross-multiplying and making x the subject

           x = 88.7 * 1.423*10^{16} eV

              x = 126.2*10^{16}eV

Therefore the total  energy  deposited is x = 126.2*10^{16}eV

The approximate number of decays  this represent  is mathematically evaluated as

            N = \frac{x}{S}

Where n is the approximate number of decay

   Substituting values

                             N = \frac{126 .2*10^{16}}{5.49*10^6}  

                                  N= 23*10^{10}  

                     

             

7 0
4 years ago
create a formula giving the strength of the induced field (B) i terms of current (I) and the distance from the wire to the probe
iren [92.7K]
So we need to find the formula for magnetic field B using the current (I) and the distance from the probe (d). So, We know that the stronger the current I, the stronger the magnetic field B. That tells us that the I and B are proportional. Also we know that the strength of the magnetic field B is weaker as the distance d of the probe increases. That tells us that B and d are inversely proportional. So our formula should have B=(I/d)*c where c is a constant of proportionality. c=μ₀/2π where μ₀ is the permeability of free space. So finally our formula is B=(μ₀I)/(2πd). 
6 0
3 years ago
The velocity v(t) in the table below is increasing for 0_t_12.
katen-ka-za [31]
<span>When n=4 subdivisions distance traveled = 40 X 12 = 480

When n=2 subdivisions distance traveled = 30 X 6 = 180 

Thank you for posting your question here at brainly. I hope the answer will help you. Feel free to ask more questions here.
</span>
7 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Other questions:
  • Activation Energy....
    5·1 answer
  • Two equal resistors are connected in series with a 1.50V battery. In order to keep the current at 0.030 A, the resistors much ea
    10·1 answer
  • When an object moves in a circle, what is its displacement equal to? How do you know?
    11·1 answer
  • A car is moving 18 m/s to the eat. If it takes the car 5 seconds to reach a velocity of 19 m/s to the east, what is its accelera
    6·1 answer
  • What is the oxidation state of beryllium
    6·1 answer
  • Which statement does NOT explain the concept of the Doppler Effect? A. As an observer moves away from a stationary sound, the so
    6·1 answer
  • Explanation's of E=MC²
    13·2 answers
  • Pls, help me quick! :( I need a lot of help.
    10·2 answers
  • I need help with this pls
    15·1 answer
  • Easy point...
    12·2 answers
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!