Answer:
220 A
Explanation:
The magnetic force on the floating rod due to the rod held close to the ground is F = BI₁L where B = magnetic field due to rod held close the ground = μ₀I₂/2πd where μ₀ = permeability of free space = 4π × 10⁻⁷ H/m, I₂ = current in rod close to ground and d = distance between both rods = 11 mm = 0.011 m. Also, I₁ = current in floating rod and L = length of rod = 1.1 m.
So, F = BI₁L
F = (μ₀I₂/2πd)I₁L
F = μ₀I₁I₂L/2πd
Given that the current in the rods are the same, I₁ = I₂ = I
So,
F = μ₀I²L/2πd
Now, the magnetic force on the floating rod equals its weight , W = mg where m = mass of rod = 0.10kg and g = acceleration due to gravity = 9.8 m/s²
So, F = W
μ₀I²L/2πd = mg
making I subject of the formula, we have
I² = 2πdmg/μ₀L
I = √(2πdmg/μ₀L)
substituting the values of the variables into the equation, we have
I = √(2π × 0.011 m × 0.1 kg × 9.8 m/s²/[4π × 10⁻⁷ H/m × 1.1 m])
I = √(0.01078 kgm²/s²/[2 × 10⁻⁷ H/m × 1.1 m])
I = √(0.01078 kgm²/s²/[2.2 × 10⁻⁷ H])
I = √(0.0049 × 10⁷kgm²/s²H)
I = √(0.049 × 10⁶kgm²/s²H)
I = 0.22 × 10³ A
I = 220 A
If it is diamagnetic then it magnetise opposite to magnetic field
if paramagnetic it weekly magnetise in direction of magnetic field
if ferromagnetic it strongly magnetise in direction of magnetic field
Answer:
Explanation:
5 C = 278 K
25 C = 298 K
V1 / T1 = V2 / T2
1.5L / 278 K = V2 / 298 K
V2 = (1.5L * 298) / 278
V2 = 1.61 L
Answer: 15.87 m
From the equation of motion:

where,
is the distance traveled,
is the initial velocity,
is the acceleration and
is the time.
The rock free falls under gravity. Initial velocity,
, 
It took
for rock to hit the water.
Substitute the values in the given equation:

Hence, the water is 15.87 m below the top level of the well.