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KIM [24]
3 years ago
14

I need help with this

Physics
1 answer:
fredd [130]3 years ago
7 0
We have here what is known as parallel combination of resistors.

Using the relation:

\frac{1}{ r_{eff} } = \frac{1}{ r_{1} } + \frac{1}{ r_{2} } + \frac{1}{ r_{3} }.. . + \frac{1}{ r_{n} } \\
And then we can turn take the inverse to get the effective resistance.

Where r is the magnitude of the resistance offered by each resistor.

In this case we have,
(every term has an mho in the end)
\frac{1}{10000} + \frac{1}{2000} + \frac{1}{1000} \\ \\ = \frac{1}{1000} ( \frac{1}{10} + \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{1} ) \\ \\ = \frac{1}{1000} ( \frac{31}{20}) \\ \\ = \frac{31}{20000}

To ger effective resistance take the inverse:
we get,
\frac{20000}{31} \: ohm \\ = 645 .16 \: ohm

The potential difference is of 9V.

So the current flowing using ohm's law,

V = IR

will be, 0.0139 Amperes.
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