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3 years ago

Which one is correct?

Mathematics

2 answers:

Neko [114]3 years ago

6 0

The correct answer is no, it has two endpoints. A ray would have an arrow on one end because it goes on forever in one direction.

If you need more help comment below and I'll do my best.

Elis [28]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

It has two endpoints

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gladu [14]

Answer:

it is A i think i am a nub tho

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

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(Pls help i need this ASAP I got 10 min left) Is Figure A’B’C’D’ a reflection of Figure ABCD? Explain.

gtnhenbr [62]

Answer:

yes it's a refelction over the line f (C)

Step-by-step explanation:

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Need Answer Fast). The solution to a problem is an irrational number. which statement is true about the solution? Will Mark Bra

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Step-by-step explanation:

There is no option to choose from, but the knowledge of what irrational numbers are, would help cover this cost.

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2 years ago

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Rockwell hardness of pins of a certain type is known to have a mean value of 50 and a standard deviation of 1.2.a. If the distri

zalisa [80]

Answer:

$P(\= X \ge 51 ) =0.0062$

$P(\= X \ge 51 ) = 0$

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question we are told that

The mean value is $\mu = 50$

The standard deviation is $\sigma = 1.2$

Considering question a

The sample size is n = 9

Generally the standard error of the mean is mathematically represented as

$\sigma_x = \frac{\sigma }{\sqrt{n} }$

=> $\sigma_x = \frac{ 1.2 }{\sqrt{9} }$

=> $\sigma_x = 0.4$

Generally the probability that the sample mean hardness for a random sample of 9 pins is at least 51 is mathematically represented as

$P(\= X \ge 51 ) = P( \frac{\= X - \mu }{\sigma_{x}} \ge \frac{51 - 50 }{0.4 } )$

$\frac{\= X -\mu}{\sigma } = Z (The \ standardized \ value\ of \ \= X )$

$P(\= X \ge 51 ) = P( Z \ge 2.5 )$

=> $P(\= X \ge 51 ) =1- P( Z < 2.5 )$

From the z table the area under the normal curve to the left corresponding to 2.5 is

$P( Z < 2.5 ) = 0.99379$

=> $P(\= X \ge 51 ) =1-0.99379$

=> $P(\= X \ge 51 ) =0.0062$

Considering question b

The sample size is n = 40

Generally the standard error of the mean is mathematically represented as

$\sigma_x = \frac{\sigma }{\sqrt{n} }$

=> $\sigma_x = \frac{ 1.2 }{\sqrt{40} }$

=> $\sigma_x = 0.1897$

Generally the (approximate) probability that the sample mean hardness for a random sample of 40 pins is at least 51 is mathematically represented as

$P(\= X \ge 51 ) = P( \frac{\= X - \mu }{\sigma_x} \ge \frac{51 - 50 }{0.1897 } )$

=> $P(\= X \ge 51 ) = P(Z \ge 5.2715 )$

=> $P(\= X \ge 51 ) = 1- P(Z < 5.2715 )$

From the z table the area under the normal curve to the left corresponding to 5.2715 and

=> $P(Z < 5.2715 ) = 1$

$P(\= X \ge 51 ) = 1- 1$

=> $P(\= X \ge 51 ) = 0$

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Answer:

I think 6 in

Step-by-step explanation:

so sorry if I'm wrong I hope u get the answer!

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