Answer:
1/3
Step-by-step explanation:
The numbers are 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6.
Both 3 and 6 are multiples of 3.
So, 2/6 is the probability since there is an equal change that the arrow will land on each section.
This simplifies to 1/3.
Brainliest, please :)
Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:
Given the differential (d/dx)(cos−1(x)), to find the equivalent formula we will differentiate the inverse function using chain rule as shown below;
let;


Therefore;

Since x = cos y from the above substitute;

Hence,
gives the required proof
The answer to 6 x (-8) = -48
<u>It is -48 because anytime you multiply one negative to one positive it will be negative if you multiply two negative's it come out to be a positive </u>
Hope this helps
Have a wonderful day
Answer:
x = 17/4 = 4.25
Step-by-step explanation:
We assume your multiplication symbol (×) is intended to be a variable (x).
Simplifying, we have ...
17 -10x +45 = 6x -10 +4
68 = 16x
68/16 = x = 17/4 = 4.25
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<em>Check</em>
17 -5(2(4.25) -9) = -(-6(4.25) +10) +4
17 -5(8.50 -9) = -(-25.5 +10) +4
17 -5(-0.5) = 15.5 +4
17 +2.5 = 19.5 . . . . . . true
Answer:
the second one is considered a bad habit as those receipts can come in handy one day
Step-by-step explanation: