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sergey [27]
3 years ago
12

Part A Which of the following statements is/are true? Check all that apply.

Physics
1 answer:
viva [34]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

A) True

C)True

D)True

Explanation:

As we know that power is the rate at which work is done.

We know that mechanical work w given as

 w = ∫F.ds

F=Force

ds = Elemental displacement

So power P = F.V

V=Velocity

F=Force

The unit of power in SI unit is Watt or joule per second (J/s).But on the other hand the unit of power in English system is horsepower.

The is also can be defined as the rate at which energy is transformed.

Following option are corrects

A) True

C)True

D)True

You might be interested in
What makes psychoanalysis different from behaviorism?
svp [43]
Psychoanalysis is a form of therapy that treats mental disorders through different ways, such as dream interpretation. It is a way of looking into the line between conscious and <span>unconsciousness </span>

Behaviorism is a theory that says that mental disorders are treated better with altering the persons behavior patterns.

I think they're different because behaviorism is just simply a theory and not actually a form of therapy.

Hopefully that helps you tell them apart!



4 0
3 years ago
Imani stirs a cup of hot sencha tea with a cool silver spoon. She notices that the silver spoon becomes warmer. What energy chan
Lina20 [59]

Answer:

D. The tea loses heat to the spoon causing the spoon to become warmer

Explanation:

When the silver spoon at a lower temperature than the tea, is added to the tea, it makes thermal contact. Hence, the heat transfer starts between the two until the equilibrium is reached. We know that the heat transfer takes place from the body with a higher temperature to a body with a lower temperature. As a result, the body with higher temperature loses heat and its temperature lowers down. While the body with a lower temperature gains heat and its temperature rises.

Therefore, the correct option is:

<u>D. The tea loses heat to the spoon causing the spoon to become warmer</u>

7 0
2 years ago
Please help, I do not understand
Anettt [7]
I think the key here is to be exquisitely careful at all times, and
any time we make any move, keep our units with it.

We're given two angular speeds, and we need to solve for a time.

Outer (slower) planet:
Angular speed =  ω  rad/sec
Time per unit angle =  (1/ω)  sec/rad
Angle per revolution = 2π rad
Time per revolution = (1/ω sec/rad) · (2π rad) = 2π/ω seconds .

Inner (faster) planet:
Angular speed =  2ω  rad/sec
Time per unit angle =  (1/2ω)  sec/rad
Angle per revolution = 2π rad
Time per revolution = (1/2ω sec/rad) · (2π rad) = 2π/2ω sec = π/ω seconds.

So far so good.  We have the outer planet taking 2π/ω seconds for one
complete revolution, and the inner planet doing it in only π/ω seconds ...
half the time for double the angular speed.  Perfect !

At this point, I know what I'm thinking, but it's hard to explain.
I'm pretty sure that the planets are in line on the same side whenever the
total elapsed time is something like a common multiple of their periods.
What I mean is:

They're in line, SOMEwhere on the circles, when

     (a fraction of one orbit) = (the same fraction of the other orbit)    
AND
     the total elapsed time is a common multiple of their periods.

Wait !  Ignore all of that.  I'm doing a good job of confusing myself, and
probably you too.  It may be simpler than that.  (I hope so.)  Throw away
those last few paragraphs.

The planets are in line again as soon as the faster one has 'lapped'
the slower one ... gone around one more time.  
So, however many of the longer period have passed, ONE MORE
of the shorter period have passed.  We're just looking for the Least
Common Multiple of the two periods.

      K (2π/ω seconds)  =  (K+1) (π/ω seconds)

                     2Kπ/ω   =    Kπ/ω + π/ω

Subtract  Kπ/ω :    Kπ/ω = π/ω

Multiply by  ω/π :      K  =  1

(Now I have a feeling that I have just finished re-inventing the wheel.)

And there we have it:

     In the time it takes the slower planet to revolve once,
     the faster planet revolves twice, and catches up with it.
    
     It will be  2π/ω  seconds before the planets line up again.
    
     When they do, they are again in the same position as shown
     in the drawing.

To describe it another way . . . 

     When Kanye has completed its first revolution ...

     Bieber has made it halfway around.

     Bieber is crawling the rest of the way to the starting point while ...

     Kanye is doing another complete revolution.

     Kanye laps Bieber just as they both reach the starting point ...

     Bieber for the first time, Kanye for the second time.


You're welcome.  The generous bounty of 5 points is very gracious,
and is appreciated.  The warm cloudy water and green breadcrust
are also delicious.
5 0
3 years ago
A 0.10 newton spring toy with a spring constant of 160 newtons per meter is compressed 0.05 meter before it is launched. When re
forsale [732]

Answer:

(1) V = 0.2 J (2) 0.05J

Explanation:

Solution

Given that:

K = 160 N/m

x = 0.05 m

Now,

(1) we solve for the  initial potential energy stored

Thus,

V = 1/2 kx² = 0.5 * 160 * (0.05)²

Therefore V = 0.2 J

(2)Now, we solve for how much of the internal energy is produced as the toy springs up to its maximum height.

By using the energy conversion, we have the following

ΔV = mgh

=(0.1/9.8) * 9.8 * 1.5 = 0.15J

The internal energy = 0.2 -0.15

=0.05J

8 0
3 years ago
Which one is made up of one or more molecules
zmey [24]
Ok so I already studied this and I realized it was water or also Oxygen
3 0
3 years ago
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