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Ronch [10]
3 years ago
11

Economists call pensions "defined benefits" plans, because:

Business
1 answer:
xxMikexx [17]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "B": pensions have traditionally been set as a fixed nominal dollar amount per year at retirement.

Explanation:

Pensions are retirement plans employees enroll during their working years. There are different types of pensions being the most common the <em>401(k), Individual Retirement Account (IRA), </em>and <em>Roth IRA</em> each one with particular features. What all of them have in common is that they allow retired individuals to receive a fixed stream of income per year after they officially stop working. Therefore, that is the reason why economists call pensions as "<em>defined benefits</em>" plans.

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Which of the scenarios best reflects the meaning of the term inflation targeting? a) In anticipation of the upcoming election, t
zvonat [6]

Answer:

b) A central bank is expected to achieve a 3% annual inflation rate

Explanation:

Inflation targeting is a type of monetary policy where the central bank of a country sets an inflation rate as its goal or target.

5 0
3 years ago
Kathy has $50,000 to invest today and would like to determine whether it is realistic for her to achieve her goal of buying a ho
Tresset [83]

Answer:

So she must achieve about 11.61 %

Explanation:

Amount invest by Kathy = $50000

She wanted to buy a home for $150000

Time of investment = 10 years

We have to find the return which she received

Let she receives x return

So according to question 50000\times (1+x)^{10}=150000

(1+x)^{10}=3

(1+x)=3^{0.1}

(1+x)=1.1161

x=0.1161=11.61%

So she must achieve about 11.61 %

4 0
3 years ago
If a borrower can afford to make monthly principal and interest payments of 1000 and the lender will make a 30 year loan at 5 1/
Alexus [3.1K]

Answer:

The the largest loan this buyer can afford is 14,533.75.

Explanation:

This can be determined using the formula for calculating the present value of an ordinary annuity as follows:

Step 1: Calculations of the present value or the loan the buyer can afford for a 30 year loan at 5 1/2%

PV30 = P * ((1 - (1 / (1 + r))^n) / r) …………………………………. (1)

Where;

PV30 = Present value or the loan the buyer can afford for a 30 year loan at 5 1/2% =?

P = monthly payment = 1000

r = interest rate = 5 1/2% = 5.50% = 0.055

n = number of years = 30

Substitute the values into equation (1) to have:

PV30 = 1000 * ((1 - (1 / (1 + 0.055))^30) / 0.055)

PV30 = 1000 * 14.5337451711221

PV30 = 14,533.75

Step 2: Calculation of the present value or the loan the buyer can afford for a 20 year loan at 4 1/2%

PV20 = P * ((1 - (1 / (1 + r))^n) / r) …………………………………. (2)

Where;

PV30 = Present value or the loan the buyer can afford for a 20 year loan at 4 1/2% =?

P = monthly payment = 1000

r = interest rate = 4 1/2% = 4.50% = 0.045

n = number of years = 20

Substitute the values into equation (1) to have:

PV20 = 1000 * ((1 - (1 / (1 + 0.045))^20) / 0.045)

PV20 = 1000 * 13.0079364514537

PV20 = 13,007.94

Conclusion

Since 14,533.75 which is the present value or the loan the buyer can afford for a 30 year loan at 5 1/2% is greater than the 13,007.94 which is the present value or the loan the buyer can afford for a 20 year loan at 4 1/2%, it therefore implies that the the largest loan this buyer can afford is 14,533.75.

5 0
2 years ago
In a long-run equilibrium,
Serga [27]

Answer: Option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

Correct option: Only a perfectly competitive firm operates at its efficient scale.

In the perfectly competitive market and in the long run, the firms who are making losses will exit the market and those firms who are able produce at a point where price is equal to the average total cost will exist in the market.

However, monopolistic firms operates at a below efficient level of production and with an excess capacity.

Competitive firms are generally enjoys the productive efficiency in the long run because these firms have the capability to produce at a lower average total cost.

8 0
3 years ago
On December 31, 2016, Bart Inc. purchased a machine from Fell Corp. in exchange for a noninterest-bearing note requiring eight p
iragen [17]

Answer:

Bart Inc.

The initial value of the machine is:

= $114,240.

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Date of purchase of machine from Fell Corp. = December 31, 2016

Annual payments for a non-interest-bearing note = $20,000

Appropriate present value of the annuity due = 5.712

PV of the annual payments for 8 years = $114,240 ($20,000 * 5.712)

First payment date = December 31, 2016

Period of payments = 8 years

Prevailing interest rate for this type of note = 11%

Check from an online financial calculator:

N (# of periods)  8

I/Y (Interest per year)  11

PMT (Periodic Payment)  20000

FV (Future Value)  0

Results

PV = $114,243.93

Sum of all periodic payments = $160,000.00

Total Interest = $45,756.07

8 0
3 years ago
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