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SSSSS [86.1K]
4 years ago
14

A rectangular beam having b=300 mm and d=575 mm, spans 5.5 m face to face of simple supports. It is reinforced for flexure with

4φ32 bars that continue uninterrupted to the ends of the span. It is to carry a service dead load wD=30 kN/m (including self-weight) and a service live load =45 kN/m both uniformly distributed along the span. Design the shear reinforcement using φ10 vertical U stirrups. Use the equation (a) for Vc. Material strengths are fc’=22 and fy=420 MPa
Engineering
1 answer:
katovenus [111]4 years ago
8 0

Answer:

provide 180 mm spacing

Explanation:

GIVEN DATA

rectangular beam: (b) = 300 mm, (d) = 575 mm

reinforced for flexure = 4Ф32 bars

WD = 30 kN /m,  WL = 45 kN/m

Wu = 1.4 * 30 + 1.6 * 45 = 114 kN/m

i) concrete shear stress ( vc)

100 Ac / bd = (100 * u * \frac{\pi }{4} *  32^2) / 300 * 575 = 1.865

from table 3.8

when:  100 Ac / bd = 1.865  then Vc = 0.778 N/mm^2

Ultimate shear force = (114 *5.5) / 2 = 313.5 kN

design shear stress =  V / bd = (313.5 * 10^3) / (300 * 575) = 1.82 N/mm^2

v < 0.8\sqrt{22}   =      1.82 < 3.75

design link provided  according to

Asv / sv =  b(v-vc) / 0.87 fy  = 300(1.82 - 0.778) / 0.87 (420)

ASv / Sv = 0.855

From table 3.13 :the value of Asv / sv can be calculated as

\frac{0.855 - 0.785}{0.897 - 0.785}  = \frac{x - 200}{175 - 200}

x = (-25) [ 0.625] + 200 = 184.375 mm

provide 180 mm spacing

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An isolation transformer whose main purpose is to reduce voltage spikes will have a turns ratio of?
garik1379 [7]

Answer:

An isolation transformer whose main purpose is to reduce voltage spikes will have a turns ratio of 1 to 1.

This is due to the windings input and output having the same waveform and amplitude.

6 0
2 years ago
The flow rate in the pipe system below is 0.05 m3/s. The pressure at point 1 is measured to be 260 kPa. Point 1 is 0.60 m higher
DedPeter [7]

Answer:

Explanation:

The rate of flow in the pipe system in Figure P4.5.2 is 0.05 m3/s. The pressure at point 1 is measured to be 260 kPa. All the pipes are galvanized iron with roughness value of 0.15 mm. Determine the pressure at point 2. Take the loss coefficient for the sudden contraction as 0.05 and v = 1.141 × 10−6 m2/s.

The answer to the above question is

The pressure at point 2 = 75.959 kPa

Explanation:

Bernoulli's equation with losses gives

hL = z₁ - z₃ +(P₁-P₃)/(ρ×g) + (v₁²-v₃²)/(2×g)

Between points 1 and 2, z₁ = z₃ + 0.6 m therefore

hL = 0.6 m +(P₁-P₂)/(ρ×g) + (v₁²-v₃²)/(2×g)

hL = (f₁×L₁×v₁²)/(D₁×2×g) + (f₂×L₂×v₂²)/(D₂×2×g) + (f₃×L₃×v₃²)/(D₃×2×g) + k×V₃₂/(2×g) = 0.6 +(P₁-P₂)/(ρ×g) + (v₁²-v₃²)/(2×g)

But v = Q/A

or  since A = π×D²/4 we have

A₁ = 1.77×10-2 m² , A₂ = 5.73×10-2 m², A₃ = 3.8×10-2 m²  

Therefore from v = Q/A we have v₁ = 2.83 m/s v₂ = 0.87 m/s and v₃  = 1.315 m/s  from there we find the friction coefficient from Moody Diagram as follows

ε = \frac{Roughness _. value}{ Diameter} Which gives

the friction coefficients as f₁ = 0.02, f₂ = 0.017 and f₃ =0.0175

Substituting he above values into the h_{l} equation we get h_{l} = 19.761 m

Combined head loss = 19.761 m

Hence 19.743 m  = 0.6 m +(260 kPa-P₃)/(ρ×9.81) + (6.276)/(2×9.81)

or 260 kPa-18.82 m × 9.81 m/s²×ρ=  P₃

Where ρ = density of water, we have

260000 Pa - 18.82 m×9.81 m/s²×997 kg/m³ = 75958.598 kg/m·s² = 75.959 kPa

6 0
3 years ago
A sedimentation basin in a water treatment plant has a length = 48 m, width = 12 m, and depth = 3 m. The flow rate = 4 m 3 /s; p
Slav-nsk [51]

Answer:

The minimum particle diameter that is removed at 85% is 1.474 * 10 ^⁻4 meters.

Solution

Given:

Length = 48 m

Width = 12 m

Depth = 3m

Flow rate = 4 m 3 /s

Water density = 10 3 kg/m 3

Dynamic viscosity = 1.30710 -3 N.sec/m

Now,

At the minimum particular diameter it is stated as follows:

The Reynolds number= 0.1

Thus,

0.1 =ρVTD/μ

VT = Dp² ( ρp- ρ) g/ 10μ²

Where

gn = The case/issue of sedimentation

VT = Terminal velocity

So,

0.1 = Dp³ ( ρp- ρ) g/ 10μ²

This becomes,

0.1 = 1000 * dp³ (1100-1000) g 0.1/ 10 *(1.307 * 10 ^⁻3)²

= 3.074 * 10 ^⁻6 = dp³ (.g01 * 10^6)

dp³=3.1343 * 10 ^⁻12

Dp minimum= 1.474 * 10 ^⁻4 meters.

8 0
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tiny-mole [99]

Explanation:

Strengthening is the method to improve the strength of material because different type of material property requires for different requirement .Some times requires more ductility,some time requires more strength.

When impurities are mixed with the pure metal then the strength of metal will increases and this is called the strengthening of metal.

The methods of strengthening are as follows

1.Solid solution strengthening and alloying

2.Work hardening

3.Transformation hardening

4.Grain boundary  strengthening

5.Precipitation hardening

6 0
4 years ago
In a heat-treating process, a 1-kg metal part, initially at 1075 K, is quenched in a closed tank containing 100 kg of water, ini
storchak [24]

Answer:

attached below

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
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