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bezimeni [28]
3 years ago
13

A white blood cell has a diameter of approximately 12 micrometers or 0.012 um a model represents its diameter as 24 um what rati

o of model size
Physics
1 answer:
ohaa [14]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The ratio of the model size is 1 : 2000

Explanation:

Given

Real Diameter =  0.012 um

Scale Diameter =  24 um

Required

Determine the scale ratio

The scale ratio is calculated as follows;

Scale = \frac{Real\ Measurement}{Scale\ Measurement}

Substitute values for real and scale measurements

Scale = \frac{0.012\ um}{24\ um}

Divide the numerator and the denominator by 0012um

Scale = \frac{1}{2000}

Represent as ratio

Scale = 1 : 2000

<em>Hence, the ratio of the model size is 1 : 2000</em>

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Trace the path of a ray emitted from the tip of the object toward the focal point of the mirror and then the reflected ray that
Crazy boy [7]

Answer: find the attached files for the answer

Explanation:

The reflected ray appears to have originated from the focal point. We should actually draw a vector from the focal point through the point where the incident ray hits the mirror but we shorten the vector so that its starting point is on the mirror, without changing its angle.

Please find the attached files for the solution

5 0
3 years ago
A circular disc of mass 20kg and radius 15cm is mounted in an horizontal cylindrical axle of radius
disa [49]

Using the concepts of energy, rotational Newton's second law and rotational kinematics we can find the kinematic energy of the system formed by the disk and the cylindrical axis

          KE = 0.23 J

given parameters

  • Disk radius R = 15 cm = 0.15 m
  • Cylinder radius r = 1.5 cm = 0.0015 m
  • Disk mass M = 20 kg
  • Time t = 1.2 s
  • Force F = 12 N

to find

  • Kinetic energy (KE)

This exercise must be solved in parts:

1st part. Endowment kinetic energy is the energy due to the circular motion of an object and is described by the equation

         KE = ½ I w²

Where KE is the kinetic energy, I the moment of inertia and w the angular velocity

The moment of inertia is a magnitude that measures the inertia for rotational movement, it is a scalar quantity, therefore it is additive. In this system it is composed of two bodies, the disk and the cylindrical axis, for which the total moment of inertia it is

         I_{ total} = I_{ disk} + I_{ cylinder}

the moments of inertia with respect to an axis passing through the center of mass are tabulated

disk          I_{disk} = ½ M R²

cylinder   I_{cylinder} = ½ m r²

where M and m are the masses of the disk and cylinder respectively, R and r their radii

         I_{total} = ½ (M R² + m r²) = ½ M R² ( 1 + \frac{m}{M} \ (\frac{r}{R})^2 )

         I_{total} = ½ M R² ( 1+ \frac{m}{20}  (\frac{0.015}{0.15} )^2 ) = \frac{1}{2} M R² (1 + 0.005 m)

As the shaft mass  is much lighter than the disk mass , the last term is very small, which is why we despise it.

         I_{total} = ½ M R²

2nd part. Let's use Newton's second law for endowment motion

        τ = I α

        α = \frac{\tau }{I_{total}}l

        τ = F R

        α = \frac{F \ R}{I_{total}}

With the rotational kinematics expressions, we assume that the system starts from rest (w₀ = 0)

        w = w₀ + α  t

where w is the angular velocity, alpha is the angular acceleration and t is the time

        w = 0 + \frac{\tau }{I_{total}} \ t

we substitute in the kinetic energy equation

        KE = ½ I_{total}  ( \frac{ \tau }{I_{total}} \ t )²

        KE = ½ \frac{ \tau^2 }{I_{total}} \ t^2

let's substitute

        KE = \frac{F^2 \ R^4}{M \ R^2 } \ t^2

        KE = F² R² t² / M

let's calculate

        KE = 12² 0.15² 1.2² / 20

        KE = 0.23 J

With the concepts of energy and rotational kinematics we can find the kinetic energy of the system is

       KE = 0.23 j

learn more about rotational kinetic energy here:

brainly.com/question/20261989

4 0
3 years ago
Needing help with this please
Gemiola [76]

Answer:

So A we cant sadly do because we cant draw. B is going to be kinetic. Thats because static friction means it stays in one place, for kinetic it means moving. So it will be 0.05 as the coefficient of the friction. Sadly, I cannot calculate C. You will have to use trigonemetry but I cannot fit that big an explanation.

Answer to A: the free body diagram would be the ski things inclined with gravity, friction, and  air resistance. I except you know which directions

Answer to B: Kinetic friction is the answer.

Answer to C: Find on own, I cannot write super big explanations - use trigonometry.

6 0
3 years ago
A block on a horizontal frictionless plane is attached to a spring, as shown below. The block oscillates along the x-axis with s
AleksandrR [38]

The question is about unclear since no picture provided. But from the question, it could be guessed that the box is moving back and forth on the frictionless plane at the amplitude of A in simple harmonic motion.

Answer:

D. At x=0, it's acceleration is at a maximum

Explanation:

As the box move forward, it reaches point A and than move backward. Theoretically, the box will move backwards, through its origin, to point -A and then going forward.

Point A is the maximum displacement of the box in this case. At this point, the box instantaneously stop to go backward. Therefore the velocity at that moment is zero.

From point -A, the box travel forward and keep building up speed due to the release in potential energy of the spring. And at point x=0, the velocity become maximum. After point x=0, the velocity of the box slows down due to the conversion of kinetic energy to potential energy of the spring. And as it reaches point A, it reaches zero velocity.

The same can be said as the box travels backward from point A to -A

8 0
4 years ago
How do you calculate elastic potential energy
Nimfa-mama [501]
U=1/2kx2

This image sums it up
5 0
3 years ago
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