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Alchen [17]
3 years ago
5

A labor-intensive process to manufacture a product has a fixed cost of $338,000 and a variable cost of $143 per unit. An automat

ed process for the same product has a fixed cost of $1,244,000 and a variable cost of $92.50 per unit. How many units must be produced and sold at $197 each for the automated process to be the preferred over the labor-intensive process?
Engineering
1 answer:
ozzi3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

no of unit is 17941

Explanation:

given data

fixed cost = $338,000

variable cost = $143 per unit

fixed cost = $1,244,000  

variable cost = $92.50 per unit

solution

we consider here no of unit is = n

so here total cost of labor will be sum of fix and variable cost i.e

total cost of labor = $33800 + $143 n  ..........1

and

total cost of capital intensive  = $1,244,000 + $92.5 n   ..........2

so here in both we prefer cost of capital if cost of capital intensive less than cost of labor

$1,244,000 + $92.5 n  <  $33800 + $143 n

solve we get

n > \frac{906000}{50.5}

n > 17941

and

cost of producing less than selling cost so here

$1,244,000 + $92.5 n < 197 n

solve it we get

n > \frac{1244000}{104.5}  

n > 11904

so in both we get greatest no is 17941

so no of unit is 17941

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Mathew is manufacturing overhead transmission wires for the working of electric trains. On what does the insulation of these wir
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Explain how you could transmit two independent base-band information signals by using SSB on a common carrier frequency.
Goshia [24]

Answer:

Using Hilbert Transformation, we can transmit two independent base-band information signals by using SSB on a common-carrier frequency.

Explanation:

  • In SSB modulators, we pre-process a real signal  by Hilbert Transform filter to form another real signal
  • The signal has the same spectral amplitude but has 90° phase shift at each frequency relative to its input signal.
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4 0
4 years ago
In a semiconductor manufacturing process, three wafers from a lot are tested. Each wafer is classified as pass or fail. Assume t
gladu [14]

Answer:

F(x) = 0           ;  x < 0

         0.064   ;  0 ≤ x < 1

         0.352   ;  1 ≤ x < 2

         0.784   ;  2 ≤ x < 3

            1        ;    x ≥ 3

Explanation:

Each wafer is classified as pass or fail.

The wafers are independent.

Then, we can modelate X : ''Number of wafers that pass the test'' as a Binomial random variable.

X ~ Bi(n,p)

Where n = 3 and p = 0.6 is the success probability

The probatility function is given by :

P(X=x)=f(x)=nCx.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

Where nCx is the combinatorial number

nCx=\frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

Let's calculate f(x) :

f(0)=3C0.(0.6^{0}).(0.4^{3})=0.4^{3}=0.064

f(1)=3C1.(0.6^{1}).(0.4^{2})=0.288

f(2)=3C2.(0.6^{2}).(0.4^{1})=0.432

f(3)=3C3.(0.6^{3}).(0.4^{0})=0.6^{3}=0.216

For the cumulative distribution function that we are looking for :

P(X\leq x)=F(x)

F(0)=f(0)\\F(1)=f(0)+f(1)\\F(2)=f(0)+f(1)+f(2)\\F(3)=f(0)+f(1)+f(2)+f(3)=1

F(0)=0.064\\F(1)=0.064+0.288=0.352\\F(2)=0.064+0.288+0.432=0.784\\F(3)=0.064+0.288+0.432+0.216=1

The cumulative distribution function for X is :

F(x) = 0           ;  x < 0

         0.064   ;  0 ≤ x < 1

         0.352   ;  1 ≤ x < 2

         0.784   ;  2 ≤ x < 3

            1        ;    x ≥ 3

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