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Alisiya [41]
3 years ago
9

The lower yield point for an iron that has an average grain diameter of 1 × 10–2 mm is 230 MPa. At a grain diameter of 6 × 10–3

mm, the yield point increases to 275 MPa. At what grain diameter will the lower yield point be 310 MPa. Express the answer in mm to three significant figures
Engineering
1 answer:
zhannawk [14.2K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

grain diameter is d=4.34*10^-^3\\d =0.00434 mm

Explanation:

i) Lower yield point =230MPa when grain diameter is 1*10^-^2mm

ii) Lower yield point =275MPa when grain diameter is 6*10^-^3 mm

The relation between yield stress and grain size is  

Yp = a + b/\sqrt{d}-----1

This is the Hall–Petch equation  

 

where Yp is the yield stress,

         a is a materials constant  

         b  is the strengthening coefficient (material specific)

         and d is the average grain diameter

therefore  (i) can be represented as  

230 = a+b/\sqrt{0.01} -----2

And ii) represented as  

275 = a +b / \sqrt{0.006} ------3

Further simplifying since 1/\sqrt{0.01} = 10

And 1/ \sqrt{0.006} = 12. 91

We have that eqn 2 and 3 becomes respectively

230 = a + 10b -----4\\275 = a + 12.91b - - - - - -5\\

Solving the simultaneous eqns 4 and 5

Eqn 5 – eqn 4 gives

230 = a + 10b -----4\\-\\275 = a + 12.91b - - - - - -5\\

45 =2.91b

Therefore b = 15.46

Substituting the value of b in eqn 4 we have that

230 =a + (10*15.46) = a +154.6

Therefore a becomes 230 -154.6 = 75.4

a=75.4

Eqn 1 now becones

Yp = 75.4 +15.46/\sqrt{d} -----6

Therefore for a yield point of 310, eqn 6 becomes

310=75.4 + 15.46/\sqrt{d}\\234.6 = 15.46/\sqrt{d}\\ Cross multiplying,\\\sqrt{d}  = 15.46/234.6\\d =(15.46/234.6)^2\\d=4.34*10^-^3\\d =0.00434 mm in 3 significant figures

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Explanation:

<h2>Given:</h2>

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<h2>Required:</h2>

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<h2>Equation:</h2><h3>Force</h3>

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where: F - force

m - mass

a - acceleration

<h3>Acceleration</h3>

a = \frac{v_f \:-\:v_i}{t}

where: a - acceleration

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<h2>Solution:</h2><h3>Solve for acceleration using the formula for force</h3>

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a = \frac{1700\:N}{1250\:N}

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<h3>Solve for final velocity using the formula for acceleration</h3>
  • Convert 30 km/hr to m/s

= \frac{30\:km}{hr}\:×\:\frac{1000\:m}{1\:m}\:×\:\frac{1\:hr}{3600\:s}

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a = \frac{v_f \:-\:v_i}{t}

1.36\: m/s² \:= \:\frac{v_f \:-\:8.33\:m/s}{10\:s}

(10 \:s)1.36\: m/s² \:= \:v_f \:-\:8.33\:m/s

v_f\: =\: (10 \:s)1.36 \:m/s²\: + \:8.33\:m/s

v_f \: =\: 13.6 \:m/s \:+\: 8.33\:m/s

v_f\: =\:  21.93\: m/s

  • Convert to km/hr

= \frac{21.93\:m}{s}\:×\:\frac{1\:km}{1000\:m}\:×\:\frac{3600\:s}{1/:hr}

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<h2>Final answer</h2><h3><u>The velocity of the car after 10 s is 78.95 km/hr</u></h3>
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