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KatRina [158]
3 years ago
14

At which angle must a charged particle be moving to experience the greatest magnetic force?

Physics
2 answers:
Anastasy [175]3 years ago
7 0
B) 90° Hope this helps
Natali5045456 [20]3 years ago
6 0

Answer: The correct answer is "90 to the magnetic field".

Explanation:

The expression for Lorentz force is as follows;

F=qE+qvBsin\theta

Here, q is the charge, E is the electric field, B is the magnetic field, v is the velocity, B is the magnetic field and \theta is the angle between the speed of the particle and the magnetic field.

If the speed of the charged particle is perpendicular to the magnetic field, in this case, there is maximum magnetic force.

Put \theta= 90 in the above expression.

F=qE+qvBsin90

F=qE+qvB

Therefore, at 90 to the magnetic field, a charged particle must be moving to experience the greatest magnetic force. The correct option is (B).

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Answer:

T_0=80695.17162...

Explanation:

Given equation:

\ln \left(\dfrac{T_0-100}{T_0}\right)=-0.00124

To solve the given equation:

\textsf{Apply log rules}: \quad e^{\ln (x)}=x

\implies \dfrac{T_0-100}{T_0}=e^{-0.00124}

Multiply both sides by T₀:

\implies T_0-100=T_0e^{-0.00124}

Add 100 to both sides:

\implies T_0=T_0e^{-0.00124}+100

Subtract T_0e^{-0.00124} from both sides:

\implies T_0-T_0e^{-0.00124}=100

Factor out the common term T₀:

\implies T_0(1-e^{-0.00124})=100

Divide both sides by (1-e^{-0.00124})

\implies T_0=\dfrac{100}{1-e^{-0.00124}}

Carry out the calculation:

\implies T_0=\dfrac{100}{1-0.99876...}

\implies T_0=\dfrac{100}{0.001239231...}

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