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3 years ago

A runner has a speed of 5m/s and a mass of 130 kg what is his kinetic energy?

Physics

2 answers:

emmainna [20.7K]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

1625

Explanation:

apx

arlik [135]3 years ago

4 0

M= 130 kg

v= 5 m/s

kinetik energy = ½• m•v²

= ½ • 130• 5²
= ½•130•25
= ½•3250
= 1625.

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The greatest speed recorded by a baseball thrown by a pitcher was 162.3 km / h, obtained by Nolan Ryan in 1974. If the ball leav

Pepsi [2]

Answer:

0.96 m

Explanation:

First, convert km/h to m/s.

162.3 km/h × (1000 m/km) × (1 hr / 3600 s) = 45.08 m/s

Now find the time it takes to move 20 m horizontally.

Δx = v₀ t + ½ at²

20 m = (45.08 m/s) t + ½ (0 m/s²) t²

t = 0.4436 s

Finally, find how far the ball falls in that time.

Δy = v₀ t + ½ at²

Δy = (0 m/s) (0.4436 s) + ½ (-9.8 m/s²) (0.4436 s)²

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3 years ago

Se lanza una pelota de béisbol desde la azotea de un edificio de 25 m de altura con velocidad inicial de magnitud 10 m/s y dirig

MissTica

Answer:

v_f = 24.3 m / s

Explanation:

A) In this exercise there is no friction so energy is conserved.

Starting point. On the roof of the building

Em₀ = K + U = ½ m v₀² + m g y₀

Final point. On the floor

Em_f = K = ½ m v_f²

Emo = Em_g

½ m v₀² + m g y₀ = ½ m v_f²

v_f² = v₀² + 2 g y₀

let's calculate

v_f = √(10² + 2 9.8 25)

v_f = 24.3 m / s

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3 years ago

When several radio telescopes are wired together, the resulting network is called a radio

WINSTONCH [101]

Answer:

Interferometer

Explanation:

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3 years ago

The pressure on a fluid at rest in a pipe increases by 20 Pa. How does this change in pressure affect the pressure on the fluid

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Answer:The change in pressure can affect the pressure on the fluid through the radius and diameter of the pipe.

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Explanation:

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3 years ago

Aloop of wire of area 71 cm^2 is placed with its plane parallel to a 16 mt magnetic field. the loop is then rotated so that its

kkurt [141]

Answer:

Approximately 1.62 × 10⁻⁴ V.

Explanation:

The average EMF in the coil is equal to

$\displaystyle \frac{\text{Final Magnetic Flux} - \text{Initial Magnetic Flux}}{2}$ ,

Why does this formula work?

By Faraday's Law of Induction, the EMF $\epsilon$ induced in a coil (one loop) is equal to the rate of change in the magnetic flux $\Phi$ through the coil.

$\displaystyle \epsilon(t) = \frac{d}{dt}(\Phi(t))$ .

Finding the average EMF in the coil is similar to finding the average velocity.

$\displaystyle \text{Average}\; \epsilon = \frac{1}{t}\int_0^t \epsilon(t)\cdot dt$ .

However, by the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus, integration reverts the action of differentiation. That is:

$\displaystyle \int_0^{t} \epsilon(t)\cdot dt = \int_0^{t} \frac{d}{dt}\Phi(t)\cdot dt = \Phi(t) - \Phi(0)$ .

Hence the equation

$\displaystyle \text{Average}\; \epsilon = \frac{1}{t}\int_0^t \epsilon(t)\cdot dt = \frac{\Phi(t)- \Phi(0)}{t}$ .

Note that information about the constant term in the original function will be lost. However, since this integral is a definite one, the constant term in $\Phi(t)$ won't matter.

Apply this formula to this question. Note that $\Phi$ , the magnetic flux through the coil, can be calculated with the equation

$\Phi = B \cdot A \cdot N \; \sin{\theta}$ .

For this question,

$B = \rm 16\; mT = 16\times 10^{-3}\; T$ is the strength of the magnetic field.
$A = \rm 71\; cm^{2} = 71\times \left(10^{-2}\right)^2 \; m^{2}$ is the area of the coil.
$N = 1$ is the number of loops in the coil.
$\theta$ is the angle between the field lines and the coil.
At $\rm 0\;s$ , the field lines are parallel to the coil, $\theta = 0^{\circ}$ .
At $\rm 0.7\; s$ , the field lines are perpendicular to the coil, $\displaystyle \theta = 90^{\circ}$ .