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shutvik [7]
3 years ago
5

PLEASE HELP!! I WILL BRAINLIEST

Mathematics
1 answer:
ArbitrLikvidat [17]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

81.8%

Step-by-step explanation:

Mean = \mu = 40

Standard deviation = \sigma = 5

Now we are supposed to find out what percent of the numbers fall between 35 and 50

z = \frac{x-\mu}{\sigma}

Substitute the values

z = \frac{x-40}{5}

Now for P(35<x<50)

Substitute x = 35

z = \frac{35-40}{5}

z =-1

Substitute x = 50

z = \frac{50-40}{5}

z =2

So, P(-1<z<2)

P(z<2)-P(z<-1)

=0.9772-0.1587

=0.8185

= 0.818 \times 100

=81.8%

Hence  81.8% percent of the numbers fall between 35 and 50

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. Imagine a game of 3 players where exactly one player wins in the end and all players have equal chances of being the winner. T
lbvjy [14]

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<em>Note : each player has equal chance of winning </em>

<u>Find the probability that there is at least one person who wins no games </u>

lets represent the probability of each player not wining a game with alphabet A

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A2 = player 2 wins no game

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Applying the inclusion-exclusion formula

<em>P( A1 ∪ A2 U A3 )</em><em> = P(A1 ) + P(A2) + P(A3) - P( A1 ∩ A2 ) - P( A2 ∩ A3 ) - P( A1            ∩ A3 )  + P( A1 ∩ A2 ∩ A3 ) </em>

where

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