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antoniya [11.8K]
4 years ago
11

Heather is troubleshooting a computer at her worksite. She has interviewed the computer’s user and is currently trying to reprod

uce the problem the user described.
Heather is in which step of the troubleshooting process?

a.

Establish a theory of probable cause.

b.

Test the theory to determine a cause.

c.

Verify full system functionality.

d.

Identify the problem.
Engineering
1 answer:
Luba_88 [7]4 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The correct option is A

Explanation:

Heather is trying to establish a theory of probable cause. In this step of the troubleshooting process, the person troubleshooting questions the obvious and then test the theory or response given by the user to really determine the cause. Once confirmation of this theory has been achieved, the troubleshooter then tries to establish a resolution to the problem. However in the event whereby the theory is not confirmed, the troubleshooter then tries to establish a new theory.

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3 0
3 years ago
The pressure in a water line is 1500 kPa. What is the line pressure in (a) lb/ft2units and (b) lbf/in2(psi) units?
n200080 [17]

Answer:

Part A:

1500\ KPa= 31328.145 \frac{lb}{ft^2}

Part B:

1500 KPa=217.55656 \frac{lb}{in^2}(Psi)

Explanation:

Part A:

Line Pressure is 1500 KPa

We need a conversion factor which converts KPa to lb/ft^2.

20.88543 \frac{lb}{ft^2}= 1\ KPa

In order to convert 1500 KPa to lb/ft^2, we proceed as:

1\ KPa=20.88543 \frac{lb}{ft^2} \\1500\ KPa= 1500 KPa*20.88543 \frac{lb}{ft^2.KPa}\\1500\ KPa= 31328.145 \frac{lb}{ft^2}

1500 KPa is 31328.145 lb/ft^2

Part B:

We will use the same procedure we did in Part A:

1 ft= 12 in

(1\ ft)^2=(12\ in)^2\\1 ft^2=144 in^2

Converting 1500 KPa\  into\  \frac{lb}{in^2}

1500\ KPa= 1500 KPa*20.88543 \frac{lb}{ft^2.KPa} * \frac{ft^2}{144\ in^2}

1500 KPa=217.55656 \frac{lb}{in^2}(Psi)

1500 KPa is 217.55656 lb/in^2 (psi)

3 0
3 years ago
A direct-coupled amplifier has a low-frequency gain of 40 dB, poles at 2 MHz and 20 MHz, a zero on the negative real axis at 200
rewona [7]

Answer:

Explanation:

Low frequency gain is= 40db= 20logK=>100 poles at 2MHz,20MHz

Zero at -200MHz, zero at infinity.

A) A(s) = 100FH(s)

B) Poles (1): 2 pi × 2 × 10^6= 4pi × 10^6MHz

              (2): 2pi × 20 × 10^6= 4pi × 10^6 MHz

 Zeroed: 2pi × 10^6 × 200= 400pi × 10^6, at infinity.

T/(S) = (1 + S/400π × 10^6)/S(1 + S/4π × 10^6)(1 + S/4π × 10^6)

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3 years ago
I need answers for this sheet please.
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4 years ago
What differentiates an athletic trainer from a clinical exercise physiologist?
kozerog [31]

Answer:

It's number 3

Explanation:

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