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Mnenie [13.5K]
3 years ago
11

A system proposed by the U.S. Navy for underwater submarine communication, called ELF (for extremely low frequency), operates wi

th a frequency of 30Hz . What is the wavelength of this radiation in meters
Physics
2 answers:
kow [346]3 years ago
7 0

Answer

Wavelength= 30*20^8/30=10^7m

Explanation:

Velocity = frequency *wavelength

We're frequency=30HZ

Velocity of light= 3*10^8m/s

Wavelength= 30*20^8/30=10^7m

Explanation:

Nesterboy [21]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

the wavelength of this radiation is 10 × 10⁶m = 10⁷m

Explanation:

Frequency, v = 30Hz = 30s⁻¹

wavelength of radiation = λ

Wavelength = speed of light / frequency

c = speed of light

c = 3 × 10⁸m/s

v = frequency

Wavelength =  3 × 10⁸ / 30

Wavelength = 10000000

Wavelength = 10 × 10⁶m

Wavelength = 10⁷m

Hence,  the wavelength of this radiation is 10 × 10⁶m = 10⁷m

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<span>10 hertz Hertz is the frequency of oscillation which is the number of oscillations per second. So if something takes 0.10 s per oscillation, divide 1 second by the period to get the frequency. So 1 / 0.10s = 10 1/s = 10 Hertz Therefore the object is vibrating at 10 hertz.</span>
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3 years ago
In a physics laboratory experiment, a coil with 200 turns enclosing an area of 13.1 cm2 is rotated during the time interval 3.10
sergij07 [2.7K]

Answer:

A)\Phi=83.84\times 10^{-9}

B)\Phi=0 Wb

C)emf=5.4090\times 10^{-4}V

Explanation:

Given that:

  • no. of turns i the coil, n=200
  • area of the coil, a=13.1 \times 10^{-4}\,m^2
  • time interval of rotation, t=3.1\times 10^{-2}\,s
  • intensity of magnetic field, B=6.4\times 10^{-5}\,T

(A)

Initially the coil area is perpendicular to the magnetic field.

So, magnetic flux is given as:

\Phi=B.a\,cos \theta..................................(1)

\theta is the angle between the area vector and the magnetic field lines. Area vector is always perpendicular to the area given. In this case area vector is parallel to the magnetic field.

\Phi=6.4\times 10^{-5}\times 13.1 \times 10^{-4}\, cos 0^{\circ}

\Phi=83.84\times 10^{-9} Wb

(B)

In this case the plane area is parallel to the magnetic field i.e. the area vector is perpendicular to the magnetic field.

∴  \theta=90^{\circ}

From eq. (1)

\Phi=6.4\times 10^{-5}\times 13.1 \times 10^{-4}\, cos 90^{\circ}

\Phi=0 Wb

(C)

According to the Faraday's Law we have:

emf=n\frac{B.a}{t}

emf=\frac{200\times 6.4\times 10^{-5}\times 13.1 \times 10^{-4}}{3.1\times 10^{-2}}

emf=5.4090\times 10^{-4}V

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Zina [86]

Heat transferred - Work done = Internal Energy

Explanation:

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  • The first law of thermodynamics equation is given as ΔU=Q−W where, ΔU = Internal energy; Q = Heat transfer; W = Work done
  • Heat = transfer of thermal energy between two bodies at different temperatures
  • Work = force used to transfer energy between a system and its surroundings
  • The First Law of Thermodynamics states - energy can be converted from one form to another with the interaction of heat, work and internal energy
  • Energy cannot be created nor destroyed
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A 46 g domino slides down a 30 degrees incline at a constant speed. What is the coefficient of friction?
blondinia [14]

Answer:

40

Explanation:

30

6 0
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