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KengaRu [80]
2 years ago
13

Suppose an object is moving in a straight line at 50 mi/hr. According to Newton's first law of motion, the object will:

Physics
1 answer:
NeX [460]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The object will continue to move in straight line at 50 mi/hr except it is acted upon by an external force

Explanation:

Newton First Law of motion: A body will continue in its present state of  rest or, if it is in motion will continue to move with uniform speed in a straight line unless it is acted upon by a force. Newton first law of motion is also called the law of inertia.

Inertia: This is the tendency of a body to remain in its states of rest or uniform motion.

From the question, The object moving in a straight line at 50 mi/hr will continue to move in a straight line at 50 mi/hr, except it is acted upon by external force that will change the speed of the object.

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After washing lettuce, you can dry the water from it using a salad spinner. You put the lettuce in the bowl, and then crank the
guapka [62]

A. The force that causes the water on the lettuce to come off the lettuce and go to the walls of the bowl is centrifugal force.

<h3>What is centrifugal force?</h3>

Centrifugal force is an inertial force that appears to act on all objects when viewed in a rotating frame of reference.

This force is directed away from the center around which the body is moving.

<h3>What is centripetal force?</h3>

This is force that acts on a body moving in a circular path and is directed towards the center around which the body is moving.

While centripetal force is directed towards to the center, the centrifugal force is directed away.

Thus, the force that causes the water on the lettuce to come off the lettuce and go to the walls of the bowl is centrifugal force.

Learn more about centrifugal force here: brainly.com/question/20905151

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6 0
1 year ago
Read 2 more answers
A passenger on your boat falls overboard. what should you do first?
yarga [219]
The very first thing that you should do when a passenger on your boat falls overboard is to throw a PFD or also known as a Personal Flotation Device. This would include anything that can help the passenger to float. But this step would differ, only if the passenger is not wearing a lifevest. 
5 0
3 years ago
How are frequency and wave period related?
dedylja [7]
-- The unit of frequency is "per second"  (Hz), which is [reciprocal time].

-- The unit of period is "second", which is [time].

Do you see where this is going ?

'Frequency' and 'period' are reciprocals of each other.

For any wave ...

Period  =  (1) / (frequency) .

Frequency  =  (1) / (period) .
6 0
3 years ago
How can a 1kg ball have more kinetic energy than a 100kg ball? Explain both using words and by providing a numerical example
MariettaO [177]

1 kg ball can have more kinetic energy than a 100 kg ball as increase in velocity is having greater impact on K.E than increase in mass.

<u>Explanation</u>:

We know kinetic energy can be judged or calculated by two parameters only which is mass and velocity. As kinetic energy is directly proportional to the (velocity)^2 and increase in velocity leads to greater effect on translational Kinetic Energy. Here formula of Kinetic Energy suggests that doubling the mass will double its K.E but doubling velocity will quadruple its velocity:

\text { Kinetic Energy }=\frac{1}{2} m v^{2}

Better understood from numerical example as given:

If a man A having weight 50 kg run with speed 5 m/s and another man B having 100 kg weight run with 2.5 m / s. Which man will have more K.E?

This can be solved as follows:

\text { Kinetic Energy of } \mathrm{A}=\frac{1}{2} 50 \times 5^{2}=625 \mathrm{J}

\text { Kinetic Energy bf } \mathrm{B}=\frac{1}{2} 100 \times 2.5^{2}=312.5 \mathrm{J}

It shows that man A will have more K.E.

Hence 1 kg ball can have more K.E than 100 kg ball by doubling velocity.

4 0
2 years ago
Car A starts in Sacramento at 11am. It travels along 400 mile route to Los Angeles at 60 mph. Car B starts from Los Angeles at n
damaskus [11]

Answer:

  • 38.89 miles

Explanation:

from the question we have the following:

distance between Sacramento and los angles = 400 miles

speed of car A = 60 mph

start time of car A = 11 am

speed of car B = 75 mph

start time of car B = 12 pm

distance of Fresno from Los Angeles = 150 miles

  • To start off let's allow car A to travel for one hour (from 11 am to 12 pm), during which it would have covered a distance of 60 miles.
  • Now the time would be 12 pm and the distance between the two cars would be 400 - 60 (distance traveled by car A within 11 am to 12 pm) = 340 miles
  • From 12 pm to the time both cars will meet, the distance covered by car A + distance covered by car B would be equal to 340 miles. Therefore
  • Distance covered by car A = speed x time(t) = 60 x t = 60t
  • Distance covered by car B = speed x time(t) = 75 x t = 75t
  • 60t + 75t = 340 miles
  • 135t = 340
  • t = 2.51 hours
  • Recall that at their meeting point, the distance covered by car B = 75t = 75 x 2.62 = 188.89 miles
  • Since Fresno is 150 miles from Los Angeles, car B which is 188.89 miles from Los Angeles at their meeting point would be 188.89 - 150 = 38.89 miles from Fresno
  • 38.89 miles would also be the distance of car A from Fresno since that is their meeting point.

4 0
3 years ago
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