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Zolol [24]
3 years ago
11

What is 1 ft^3 to m^3

Mathematics
1 answer:
cluponka [151]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

1 ft3= 0,028 m3

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that a 1 ft= 0,305 m,  

if we cubed the above equation we have the following

1 ft3= (0,305)^3 m3

1 ft3= 0,028 m3

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Simplify 15.6 divided by negative 3. . (5 points)
worty [1.4K]

Answer: -5.2

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
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Is the function ƒ(x) = (–7)x an exponential function? If so, identify the base. If not, why not?
Neko [114]

Answer:No it's not an exponential equation in which f(x)is not qualified to an exponential number. no number from 1 - 20 can be used and get subtracted by 2 to give a square number.

eg-

4×2-2≠ square number

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
Suppose you pick two cards from a deck of 52 playing cards. What is the probability that they are both queens?
photoshop1234 [79]

Answer:

0.45% probability that they are both queens.

Step-by-step explanation:

A probability is the number of desired outcomes divided by the number of total outcomes

The combinations formula is important in this problem:

C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

Desired outcomes

You want 2 queens. Four cards are queens. I am going to call then A,B,C,D. A and B is the same outcome as B and A. That is, the order is not important, so this is why we use the combinations formula.

The number of desired outcomes is a combinations of 2 cards from a set of 4(queens). So

D = C_{4,2} = \frac{4!}{2!(4-2)!} = 6

Total outcomes

Combinations of 2 from a set of 52(number of playing cards). So

T = C_{52,2} = \frac{52!}{2!(52-2)!} = 1326

What is the probability that they are both queens?

P = \frac{D}{T} = \frac{6}{1326} = 0.0045

0.45% probability that they are both queens.

4 0
3 years ago
The taste test for PTC (phenylthiourea) is a common class demonstration in the study of genetics. It is known that 70% of the Am
AysviL [449]

Answer:

The variance for the number of tasters is 4.2

Step-by-step explanation:

For each person, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they are tasters, or they are not. The probability of a person being a taster is independent of any other person. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

Probability of exactly x sucesses on n repeated trials, with p probability.

The variance of the binomial distribution is:

V(X) = np(1-p)

It is known that 70% of the American people are "tasters" with the rest are "non-tasters". Suppose a genetics class of size 20

This means that p = 0.7, n = 20

So

V(X) = np(1-p) = 20*0.7*0.3 = 4.2

The variance for the number of tasters is 4.2

7 0
3 years ago
What is the quotient?
VashaNatasha [74]

Answer:

-0.4

I am pretty sure

Step-by-step explanation:

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