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zzz [600]
4 years ago
12

What two quantities are crucial to quantifying the translational kinetic energy of an object?

Physics
1 answer:
Ostrovityanka [42]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Moment of inertia and angular velocity.

Explanation:

The translational kinetic energy of an object is possessed when the object is showing rotational motion. It can be given by the formula as :

KE=\dfrac{1}{2}I\omega^2

Here,

I is the moment of inertia of the object

\omega is the angular velocity of the object

So, the translational kinetic energy of an object is given by moment of inertia and angular velocity of the object. Hence, this is the required solution.

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Tell me about your experiences with science​
atroni [7]

Answer:

Well i once did an expiremnet and it exploaded in my face lol

Explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is the molarity of a solution that contains 6 moles of solute in 2 liters of solution?
ankoles [38]

Answer:

3mol/L or 3mol/dm³

Explanation:

Given:

solution contains 6 moles of solute consider it 'n' i.e 6 moles

Volume of solution consider in 'V' i.e 2 liters

Required:

Molarity of solution 'M'=?

Formula:

In order to find  Molarity of a solution, no.of moles of solute divided by Vol.of solution in litres (∴ number of moles in 1 litre of solution)

Molarity = no.of moles of solute/Vol.of solution in litres or dm³

Calculations:

M= 6mol/2L =

M= 3mol/L or 3mol/dm³

Therefore, the molarity of a solution that contains 6 moles of solute in 2 liters of solution is 3mol/L or 3mol/dm³

5 0
4 years ago
The magnetic strips on credit cards can become demagnetized. What type of magnet are they?
Damm [24]
I think you're fishing for "temporary magnet" or something like that,
but I don't agree with it. 

Credit card strips, refrigerator magnets, recording tape, bar magnets,
and big heavy horseshoe magnets are permanent magnets ... you don't
have to keep an electric current circulating around them to make them
magnetic. 

But that doesn't mean that they stay magnetic no matter WHAT you do
to them.  They can be DEmagnetized by being heated, dropped on the
floor, hit with a hammer, or in the presence of another, stronger magnet. 
4 0
4 years ago
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The energy spacing between levels 1 and 2 is twice that between 2 and 3. If an electron makes a transition from level 3 to level
vovikov84 [41]

Answer:\lambda _3=\frac{\lambda }{3}

Explanation:

Given

E_3-E_2=\frac{hc}{\lambda }

also E_2-E_1=2\left ( E_3-E_2\right )

Let wavelength produce during transition from 2 to 1 is \lambda_0

\frac{hc}{\lambda _0}=2\frac{hc}{\lambda }

\lambda _0=\frac{\lambda }{2}

For E_3 to E_1 transition

E_3-E_1=E_3-E_2+E_2-E_1

E_3-E_1=\frac{hc}{\lambda }+2\frac{hc}{\lambda }

\frac{hc}{\lambda _3}=3\frac{hc}{\lambda }

\lambda _3=\frac{\lambda }{3}

5 0
3 years ago
When the pivot point of a balance is not at the center of mass of the balance, how is the net torque on the balance calculated?
viktelen [127]

Answer:

Explanation:

Net torque is calculated by multiplying the force with distance from the point of application of force to the point of pivot .

If more than 2 forces are present, then we either subtract the product of forces with their respective distances from pivot point or we add them . It depends on whether they both are present on opposite sides of pivot or on same side of pivot .

When a force is applied directly to the pivot point of balance, then the torque on due that force = 0 (zero) .

It is so because the torque is defined as the product of force and perpendicular distance from the pivot point but here the distance is 0 , therefore torque is zero.

8 0
4 years ago
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