First picture:
You got the first two right (good job!), so I'll just tackle the third one. If you have to compute 
, it means that you have to substitute 
in place of 
. Differently from the first two points, this will generate a new function, rather than a specific value:
Second picture:
Given the point 
highlighted in the picture, you can deduce that the base is 
units long (since it spans from 
to 
) and the height is 
units long (because it spans from to ). So, the area of the rectangle is the multiplication between base and height:
But we know that 
, so we have
The domain of this function is given by the domain of the square root: we want its argument to be non, negative, so we have
But since the problem is symmetric, the answer is
You can only see the answer 
because, if you choose 
or 
, the rectangle degenerates to a segment, and your exercise doesn't like this scenario, apparently
Off the top of my head i can tell that B) 3 and A) -1 are two possible roots, you can plug it into a calculator and situate put if there is more
Answer:
A.) 15
B.) 1 year
C.) $50
D.) 1.5%
Step-by-step explanation:
The percentage equation goes thus:
Interest earned = principal * rate * time
A)
Principal: $100 Interest rate: 5% Time in years: 3 Interest earned
Interest earned = $100 * 0.05 * 3
Interest earned = $15
B.)
Principa;" $500 Interest rate: 4% Time in years: interest earned: $20
Interest earned = principal * rate * time
20 = 500 * 0.04 * time
20 = 20 * time
Time = 20 / 20 = 1
Time = 1 year
C.)
Principal: Interest rate:10% Time in years: 7 Interest earned:$35
Interest earned = principal * rate * time
$35 = principal * 0.1 * 7
$35 = principal * 0.7
Principal = $35 / 0.7
Principal = $50
D.)
Principal: $200 Interest rate: Time in years:2 Interest earned: $6
Interest earned = principal * rate * time
$6 = $200 * rate * 2
$6 = $400 * rate
Rate = $6/$400
Rate = 0.015 = 1.5%
The variance of the binomial distribution of the number of households with landline service is 2.
<h3>What is the binomial probability distribution?</h3>
It is the probability of <u>exactly x successes on n repeated trials, with p probability</u> of a success on each trial.
The variance of the distribution is given by:
V(X) = np(1 - p)
In this problem, the parameters are given as follows:
n = 8, p = 0.504.
Hence the variance is given by:
V(X) = 8 x 0.504 x 0.496 = 2.
More can be learned about the binomial distribution at brainly.com/question/24863377
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