1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
Nina [5.8K]
3 years ago
14

Which is a more objective measurement, sound intensity or loudness, and why? 1. sound intensity is exactly same as loudness. 2.

sound intensity is a more objective and physical attribute of a sound wave because loudness can vary from person to person. 3. loudness is a more objective and physical attribute of a sound wave because sound intensity can vary from person to person. 4. sound intensity and loudness are subjective quantities; both can vary from person to person. 009?
Physics
2 answers:
fgiga [73]3 years ago
7 0
The correct answer is:
<span>2. sound intensity is a more objective and physical attribute of a sound wave because loudness can vary from person to person

indeed, sound intensity is a measurable quantity, and so it is objective, while loudness is the subjective perception of the sound level, so it varies from person to person.</span>
Sati [7]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

2. sound intensity is a more objective and physical attribute of a sound wave because loudness can vary from person to person.

Explanation:

This is the statement that best describes the difference between sound intensity and loudness. Loudness refers to a subjective perception of how loud or soft a sound seems to a particular listener. However, this loudness is in fact determined by the amount of energy in sound waves. This is known as sound intensity and is measured in decibels. Sound intensity is an objective measurement that can better help us determine how loud a sound is.

You might be interested in
A wire carries a steady current of 2.20
alina1380 [7]
By definition we know that the force is the vector product of the vector of the current by the length with the magnetic field vector. The current in this case goes in a positive "Y" direction. If we assume that the magnetic field goes in the positive "K" direction, then the result will be in the positive "X" direction. Attached solution.

5 0
2 years ago
Can you please tell me what this is
Anna [14]

Answer:

200000 J

Explanation:

From the question given above, the following data were obtained:

Mass (m) of roller coaster = 1000 Kg

Velocity (v) of roller coaster = 20 m/s

Kinetic energy (KE) =?

Kinetic energy is simply defined as the energy possess by an object in motion. Mathematically, it can be expressed as:

KE = ½mv²

Where

KE => is the kinetic energy.

m =>is the mass of the object

V => it the velocity of the object.

With the above formula, we can obtain the kinetic energy of the roller coaster as follow:

Mass (m) of roller coaster = 1000 Kg

Velocity (v) of roller coaster = 20 m/s

Kinetic energy (KE) =?

KE = ½mv²

KE = ½ × 1000 × 20²

KE = 500 × 400

KE = 200000 J

Therefore, the kinetic energy of the roller coaster is 200000 J.

4 0
2 years ago
When an automobile moves with constant speed down a highway, most of the power developed by the engine is used to compensate for
uysha [10]

Answer:

F=5449 N

Explanation:

Work done is a product of force and displacement ie

Work done, W, = Force*Displacement

Power, P, is Work done/Time

P=\frac {W}{t}=\frac {FS}{t} where P is power, W is work done, F is force, S is displacement and t is time

In this case, F is the frictional force. Converting the power from hp to W, we multiply by 746 hence P=746*168=125328  W

Since displacement/time is velocity, then

P=FV where V is velocity in m/s

Making F the subject

F=\frac {P}{V}

F=\frac {125328}{23}=5449.043478  N

F=5449 N

7 0
3 years ago
you slide across home plate during baseball game. If you have a mass of 82 kg, and the coefficient of kinetic friction between y
Tju [1.3M]

m = mass of the person = 82 kg

g = acceleration due to gravity acting on the person = 9.8 m/s²

F = normal force by the surface on the person

f = kinetic frictional force acting on the person by the surface

μ = Coefficient of kinetic friction = 0.45

The normal force by the surface in upward direction balances the weight of the person in down direction , hence

F = mg                                          eq-1

kinetic frictional force on the person acting is given as

f = μ F

using eq-1

f = μ mg

inserting the values

f = (0.45) (82) (9.8)

f = 361.6 N

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Why earth have gravity​
enot [183]

Answer:

Because it has mass.

Explanation:

8 0
2 years ago
Other questions:
  • 3
    8·1 answer
  • A 0.5 kg ball moving at a speed of 3m/s rolls up a hill. How high does the ball roll before it stops
    6·1 answer
  • What kind of mirror is used in automobiles and trucks
    11·1 answer
  • PLSSS HELP 10 MORE MINS LEFT UNTIL THIS IS DUE The diagram shows you the direction heat energy is moving. Based on the diagram,
    5·1 answer
  • A Level is set up midway between two wood hubs that are about 300 ft. apart. The rod reading on hub A is 9.09 ft. and the readin
    12·1 answer
  • What type of wave is created when banging a drum
    13·2 answers
  • The main advantage banking services offer is?
    6·1 answer
  • A string is stretched to a length of 361 cm and both ends are fixed. If the density of the string is 0.039 g/cm, and its tension
    12·1 answer
  • "The two equations below express conservation of energy and conservation of mass for water flowing from a circular hole of radiu
    7·1 answer
  • A. 24.89<br> B. 25.89<br> C. 17.74<br> D. 19.73
    6·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!