Kia is doing an experiment in science lab. She is given a beaker containing 100 g of liquid. The beaker has markings on the side
1 answer:
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Answer:
15.6m/s
Explanation:
V1= because the derivate of the position is the velocity
V1=12t+3
V2=20+-8t because the integral of the acceleration is the velocity
V2=
V1=V2 to see when the velocities of particles match
12t+3=20-4t^2
4t^2+12t-17=0 we resolve this with
and we take the positif root
t=1.05 sec
if we evaluate the velocity (V1 or V2) the result is 15.6m/s
The length to which the pendulum will be adjusted to keep perfect time is 29.59 inches. See the explanation below.
<h3>What is the justification for the above answer?</h3>T1 = 2πR√(L1/GM)
and
T2 = 2πR√(L1/GM)
T1/T2 = √(L1/L2).
If the pendulum has an efficient period, that means it executes with perfect frequency.
Thus,
T2 = (24 * 60)/x
= 1440/x
This means that in one day, there are perfect cycles of represented by "x". Note that there are 1440 minutes in one day.
If the other Pendulum is slower by 10 minutes, that means
T1 = 1450/x
Hence
(1450/x)/(1440/x) = √(L1/L2).
⇒ 1450/1440 = √(L1/L2).
Thus,
(1450/1440)² = 30/L
L = 30/(1450/1440)²
L = 30/(1.00694444444)²
L = 30/1.01393711419
L = 29.5876337695
L 29.59 inches.
Hence, the pendulum will need to be adjusted by 29.59 inches to ensure that the clock keeps perfect time.
Learn more about pendulum problems:
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