Step-by-step explanation:
option C is the answer
hope it helps
Answer:
cos x ≠ 0 ⇔ x ≠ 
; k ∈ N
<=> cos²x + sin²x = 1
⇔ 1 = 1
=> x = { R \ (pi/2 + k.pi); k ∈ N}
Step-by-step explanation:
There are two blue marbles so you have a 2/8 probability of drawing a blue marble on each draw since the marble is replaced after the first draw. 2/8 can be simplified to be 1/4 and then converted to be 0.25 per draw. 0.25 plus 0.25 equals 0.5. Since we are dealing with percentages multiply 0.5 x 100 which equals 50. Now take 50 and divided by the total number of marbles in the bag which is 8. 50 divided by 8 equals 6.25. So it would be about 6%.
Answer:
a=10 b=30 c=20
Step-by-step explanation:
10+30=40 30+20=50 20+10=30
Proably about 500 milleleters
