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Scorpion4ik [409]
2 years ago
12

A competitive firm produces output using three fixed factors and one variable factor. The firm's short run production function i

s q = 305x - 2x2; where x is the amount of variable factor used. The price of output is $2 per unit and the price of the variable factor is $10 per unit. In the short run, how many units of x should the firm use?(a) 37(b) 150(c) 21(d) 75(e) None of the above.
Business
1 answer:
Nesterboy [21]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

D) 75

Explanation:

Our initial production function is:

q = 305X - 2X²        

we calculate the derivative of q:

(q') = 305 - 4X

MP = 305 - 4X

$10 / $2 = 305 - 4X

5 = 305 - 4X

4X = 305 - 5 = 300

x = 300 / 4

x = 75

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A(n) ____ strategy requires little initial investment, is heavily regulated, and provides little opportunity to modify products
Leni [432]

<span>The answer to this question is importing/exporting strategy. Importing is when a product is being brought into the country because they lack of these products or services. While in exporting, this is when a business is increasing its market by supplying its products and services to a different country.</span>

6 0
3 years ago
During 2021, Terps Company issued 800,000 coupons which entitles the customer to a $5.00 cash refund when the coupon is submitte
11Alexandr11 [23.1K]

Answer:

$1,050,000

Explanation:

Calculation to determine what the company should report as a liability for unredeemed coupons

Liability for unredeemed coupons =($800,000 x 0.70 ) - $350,000 ) x $5.00

Liability for unredeemed coupons=($560,000-$350,000)×$5.00

Liability for unredeemed coupons=$210,000x $5.00

Liability for unredeemed coupons=$1,050,000

Therefore At December 31, 2021, the company should report a liability for unredeemed coupons of:$1,050,000

5 0
2 years ago
You are scheduled to receive annual payments of $60,000 for each of the next 20 years. The annual rate of return is 8 percent. W
babymother [125]

Answer:

= $ 219,657.43

Explanation:

FV of annuity = P x [(1+r) n -1/r]

P = Periodic payment = $ 20,000

r = Periodic interest rate = 0.08

n = Number of periods = 20

FV = $ 60,000 x [(1+ 0.08)20 -1/0.08]

  = $ 60,000 x [(1.08)20 -1/0.08]

  = $ 60,000 x [(4.66095714384931 -1)/0.08]

  = $ 60,000 x (3.66095714384931/0.08)

= $ 60,000 x 45.7619642981163

= $ 2,745,717.85788698 or $ 2,745,717.86

FV of annuity due =(1+r) x P x [(1+r) n -1/r]

                              = (1+0.08) x $ 2,745,717.85788698

                              = 1.08 x $ 2,745,717.85788698

                             = $ 2,965,375.28651794 or $ 2,965,375.29

Difference in FV of ordinary annuity and annuity due

                             = $ 2,965,375.29 - $ 2,745,717.86

                             = $ 219,657.43

3 0
3 years ago
Rick Co. had 30 million shares of $1 par common stock outstanding at January 1, 2021. In October 2021, Rick Co.'s Board of Direc
Bond [772]

Answer:

Debit retained earnings for $15.30 million.

Explanation:

As per the data given in the question,

Declaration of common stock dividend indicates no cash payments, only extra shares issued with rate of stock dividend

In this Rick Co. had 30 million shares and Rick Co. declared 1% stock dividend  

which means 30 million × 1% = 0.30 million shares issued

Retained earning = (0.30 million × $51)  

= $15.30 million

To common stock A/c =  (0.30 × $1) = $0.30 million

To capital paid in access A/c = (0.30 million × ($51-$1)) =  $15.00 million

( Being stock dividend was issued at 1% )

Hence, Option (d) Debit retained earning for $15.30 million is correct.

8 0
2 years ago
Method A assumes simple interest over final fractional periods, while Method B assumes simple discount over final fractional per
Marina86 [1]

Answer:

The answer is "1.1"

Explanation:

In the case of a single Interest, the principal value is determined as follows:

\ I = Prt \\\ A = P + I\\A = P(1+rt) \\\\A = amount \\P= principle\\r = rate\\t= time

In case of discount:

D = Mrt \\P = M - D \\P = M(1-rt)\\\\Where,  D= discount \\M =\  Maturity  \ value \\

Let income amount = 100, time = 1.5 years, and rate =20 %.

Formula:

A = P(1+rt)  

A =P+I

by putting vale in the above formula we get the value that is = 76.92, thus method A will give 76.92  value.

If we calculate discount then the formula is:

P = M(1-rt)

M = 100  rate and time is same as above.

P = 100(1-0.2 \times 1.5) \\P = 100 \times \frac{70}{100} \\P = 70

Thus Method B will give the value that is 70  

calculating ratio value:

ratio = \frac{\ method\  A \ value} {\ method \ B \ value}\\\\\Rightarrow ratio = \frac{76.92}{70}\\\\\Rightarrow ratio = \frac{7692}{7000}\\\\\Rightarrow ratio = 1.098 \ \ \ \  or \ \ \ \  1.

4 0
3 years ago
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