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boyakko [2]
3 years ago
9

BRAINLIEST ANSWER! What is the best description of the side of the moon that faces Earth? A. goes through cycles B. the same C.

changes D. random
Chemistry
2 answers:
spayn [35]3 years ago
4 0
The answer for the question is A
Mama L [17]3 years ago
3 0
It is A. It goes through cycled. Look it up. It's really cool. Hope this helps. Brainleist please
You might be interested in
1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2 3p^6 how many unpaired electrons are in the atom represented by the electron configuration above?
Sedbober [7]
It's a combination of factors:
Less electrons paired in the same orbital
More electrons with parallel spins in separate orbitals
Pertinent valence orbitals NOT close enough in energy for electron pairing to be stabilized enough by large orbital size
DISCLAIMER: Long answer, but it's a complicated issue, so... :)
A lot of people want to say that it's because a "half-filled subshell" increases stability, which is a reason, but not necessarily the only reason. However, for chromium, it's the significant reason.
It's also worth mentioning that these reasons are after-the-fact; chromium doesn't know the reasons we come up with; the reasons just have to be, well, reasonable.
The reasons I can think of are:
Minimization of coulombic repulsion energy
Maximization of exchange energy
Lack of significant reduction of pairing energy overall in comparison to an atom with larger occupied orbitals
COULOMBIC REPULSION ENERGY
Coulombic repulsion energy is the increased energy due to opposite-spin electron pairing, in a context where there are only two electrons of nearly-degenerate energies.
So, for example...
↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−− is higher in energy than
↑
↓
−−−−−

↓
↑
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−
To make it easier on us, we can crudely "measure" the repulsion energy with the symbol
Π
c
. We'd just say that for every electron pair in the same orbital, it adds one
Π
c
unit of destabilization.
When you have something like this with parallel electron spins...
↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−
It becomes important to incorporate the exchange energy.
EXCHANGE ENERGY
Exchange energy is the reduction in energy due to the number of parallel-spin electron pairs in different orbitals.
It's a quantum mechanical argument where the parallel-spin electrons can exchange with each other due to their indistinguishability (you can't tell for sure if it's electron 1 that's in orbital 1, or electron 2 that's in orbital 1, etc), reducing the energy of the configuration.
For example...
↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−− is lower in energy than
↑
↓
−−−−−

↓
↑
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−
To make it easier for us, a crude way to "measure" exchange energy is to say that it's equal to
Π
e
for each pair that can exchange.
So for the first configuration above, it would be stabilized by
Π
e
(
1
↔
2
), but the second configuration would have a
0
Π
e
stabilization (opposite spins; can't exchange).
PAIRING ENERGY
Pairing energy is just the combination of both the repulsion and exchange energy. We call it
Π
, so:
Π
=
Π
c
+
Π
e

Inorganic Chemistry, Miessler et al.
Inorganic Chemistry, Miessler et al.
Basically, the pairing energy is:
higher when repulsion energy is high (i.e. many electrons paired), meaning pairing is unfavorable
lower when exchange energy is high (i.e. many electrons parallel and unpaired), meaning pairing is favorable
So, when it comes to putting it together for chromium... (
4
s
and
3
d
orbitals)
↑
↓
−−−−−
↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−
compared to
↑
↓
−−−−−
↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−

↑
↓
−−−−−
is more stable.
For simplicity, if we assume the
4
s
and
3
d
electrons aren't close enough in energy to be considered "nearly-degenerate":
The first configuration has
Π
=
10
Π
e
.
(Exchanges:
1
↔
2
,
1
↔
3
,
1
↔
4
,
1
↔
5
,
2
↔
3
,

2
↔
4
,
2
↔
5
,
3
↔
4
,
3
↔
5
,
4
↔
5
)
The second configuration has
Π
=
Π
c
+
6
Π
e
.
(Exchanges:
1
↔
2
,
1
↔
3
,
1
↔
4
,
2
↔
3
,
2
↔
4
,
3
↔
4
)
Technically, they are about
3.29 eV
apart (Appendix B.9), which means it takes about
3.29 V
to transfer a single electron from the
3
d
up to the
4
s
.
We could also say that since the
3
d
orbitals are lower in energy, transferring one electron to a lower-energy orbital is helpful anyways from a less quantitative perspective.
COMPLICATIONS DUE TO ORBITAL SIZE
Note that for example,
W
has a configuration of
[
X
e
]
5
d
4
6
s
2
, which seems to contradict the reasoning we had for
Cr
, since the pairing occurred in the higher-energy orbital.
But, we should also recognize that
5
d
orbitals are larger than
3
d
orbitals, which means the electron density can be more spread out for
W
than for
Cr
, thus reducing the pairing energy
Π
.
That is,
Π
W
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
There are 31.1 grams (g) in 1 troy ounce (ozt). How many ozt of gold are extracted from 1 short ton of average Nevada ore
devlian [24]

This problem is providing us with the mass equivalent to one troy ounce. Thus, the troy ounces of gold in one short ton of average Nevada ore is required and found to be the 0.103 otz according to the following dimensional analysis.

<h3>Dimensional analysis</h3>

In chemistry, a raft of problems do not always provide an equation in order to be solved yet dimensional analysis can be applied, so as to obtain the desired amount in the required units.

Thus, since this problem asks for try ounces in an average Nevada ore,  which has 3.2 grams of gold per short ton of ore, one can solve the following setup in order to obtain the required answer in otz:

\frac{3.2gAu}{1short-ton}*1short-ton*\frac{1otz}{31.1g} \\

Where the short tons are cancelled out as well as the grams, in order to obtain:

0.103 otz

Learn more about dimensional analysis: brainly.com/question/10874167

4 0
2 years ago
What is/are the principal product(s) formed when excess methylmagnesium iodide reacts with p-hydroxyacetophenone?
Montano1993 [528]

The end product will depend upon

a) the amount of the reagent taken

b) the final treatment of the reaction

If we have just taken methylmagnesium iodide and p-hydroxyacetophenone, then we will get methane and hydroxyl group substituted with MgI in place of hydrogen

Figure 1

However if we have taken excess of methylmagnesium iodide which is Grignard's reagent followed by hydrolysis we will get different product

Figure 2

5 0
4 years ago
Why doesnt science offer conclusive proof of phenomena
Rashid [163]
Evidence could be gathered in the future that contradicts original theories. <span>Phenomena cannot be proven by conclusive evidence in science because, as of now, the evidence isn't conclusive. It is speculation. Just as a phenomena cannot be proven, it also cannot be disproven. </span>
3 0
4 years ago
Given 700 ml of oxygen at 7 ºC and 106.6 kPa pressure, what volume does it take at 27ºC and 66.6 kPa pressure
o-na [289]

Answer:

The volume is 1.2L

Explanation:

Initial volume (V1) = 700mL = 0.7L

Initial temperature (T1) = 7°C = (7 + 273.15)K = 280.15K

Initial pressure = 106.6kPa = 106600Pa

Final temperature (T2) = 27°C = (27 + 273.15)K = 300.15K

Final pressure (P2) = 66.6kPa = 66600Pa

Final volume (V2) = ?

To solve this question, we need to use combined gas equation which is a combination of Boyle's law, Charles Law and pressure law.

(P1 × V1) / T1 = (P2 × V2) / T2

solve for V2 by making it the subject of formula,

P1 × V1 × T2 = P2 × V2 × T1

V2 = (P1 × V1 × T2) / (P2 × T1)

V2 = (106600 × 0.7 × 300.15) / (66600 × 280.15)

V2 = 22397193 / 18657990

V2 = 1.2L

The final volume of the gas is 1.2L

6 0
3 years ago
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