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e-lub [12.9K]
2 years ago
15

A police car moving at 36.0 m/s is chasing a speeding motorist traveling at 30.0 m/s. The police car has a siren that emits soun

d at 3550 Hz. What is the frequency that the motorist hears?
Physics
1 answer:
maxonik [38]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The frequency heard by the motorist is 4313.2 Hz.

Explanation:

let f1 be the frequency emited by the police car and f2 be the frequency heard by the motorist, let v1 be the speed of the police car and v2 be the speed of the motorist and v = 343 m/s be the speed of sound.

because the police car is moving towards the motorist at a higher speed, then the motorist will hear a increasing frequency and according to Dopper effect, that frequency is given by:

f1 =  [(v + v2/(v - v1))]×(f2)

   = [( 343 + 30)/(343 - 36)]×(3550)

   = 4313.2 Hz

Therefore, the frequency heard by the motorist is 4313.2 Hz.

You might be interested in
A closely wound, circular coil with a diameter of 4.30 cm has 470 turns and carries a current of 0.460 A .
Nadusha1986 [10]

Hi there!

a)
Let's use Biot-Savart's law to derive an expression for the magnetic field produced by ONE loop.

dB = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{id\vec{l} \times \hat{r}}{r^2}

dB = Differential Magnetic field element

μ₀ = Permeability of free space (4π × 10⁻⁷ Tm/A)

R = radius of loop (2.15 cm = 0.0215 m)

i = Current in loop (0.460 A)

For a circular coil, the radius vector and the differential length vector are ALWAYS perpendicular. So, for their cross-product, since sin(90) = 1, we can disregard it.

dB = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{id\vec{l}}{r^2}

Now, let's write the integral, replacing 'dl' with 'ds' for an arc length:
B = \int \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{ids}{R^2}

Taking out constants from the integral:
B =\frac{\mu_0 i}{4\pi R^2}  \int ds

Since we are integrating around an entire circle, we are integrating from 0 to 2π.

B =\frac{\mu_0 i}{4\pi R^2}  \int\limits^{2\pi R}_0 \, ds

Evaluate:
B =\frac{\mu_0 i}{4\pi R^2}  (2\pi R- 0) = \frac{\mu_0 i}{2R}

Plugging in our givens to solve for the magnetic field strength of one loop:

B = \frac{(4\pi *10^{-7}) (0.460)}{2(0.0215)} = 1.3443 \mu T

Multiply by the number of loops to find the total magnetic field:
B_T = N B = 0.00631 = \boxed{6.318 mT}

b)

Now, we have an additional component of the magnetic field. Let's use Biot-Savart's Law again:
dB = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{id\vec{l} \times \hat{r}}{r^2}

In this case, we cannot disregard the cross-product. Using the angle between the differential length and radius vector 'θ' (in the diagram), we can represent the cross-product as cosθ. However, this would make integrating difficult. Using a right triangle, we can use the angle formed at the top 'φ', and represent this as sinφ.  

dB = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{id\vec{l} sin\theta}{r^2}

Using the diagram, if 'z' is the point's height from the center:

r = \sqrt{z^2 + R^2 }\\\\sin\phi = \frac{R}{\sqrt{z^2 + R^2}}

Substituting this into our expression:
dB = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{id\vec{l}}{(\sqrt{z^2 + R^2})^2} }(\frac{R}{\sqrt{z^2 + R^2}})\\\\dB = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{iRd\vec{l}}{(z^2 + R^2)^\frac{3}{2}} }

Now, the only thing that isn't constant is the differential length (replace with ds). We will integrate along the entire circle again:
B = \frac{\mu_0 iR}{4\pi (z^2 + R^2)^\frac{3}{2}}} \int\limits^{2\pi R}_0, ds

Evaluate:
B = \frac{\mu_0 iR}{4\pi (z^2 + R^2)^\frac{3}{2}}} (2\pi R)\\\\B = \frac{\mu_0 iR^2}{2 (z^2 + R^2)^\frac{3}{2}}}

Multiplying by the number of loops:
B_T= \frac{\mu_0 N iR^2}{2 (z^2 + R^2)^\frac{3}{2}}}

Plug in the given values:
B_T= \frac{(4\pi *10^{-7}) (470) (0.460)(0.0215)^2}{2 ((0.095)^2 + (0.0215)^2)^\frac{3}{2}}} \\\\ =  0.00006795 = \boxed{67.952 \mu T}

5 0
1 year ago
Read 2 more answers
A charged paint is spread in a very thin uniform layer over the surface of a plastic sphere of diameter 13.0 cm , giving it a ch
Leokris [45]

a) Electric field inside the paint layer: zero

b) Electric field just outside the paint layer: -3.62\cdot 10^7 N/C

c) Electric field 8.00 cm outside the paint layer: -7.27\cdot 10^7 N/C

Explanation:

a)

We can find the electric field inside the paint layer by applying Gauss Law: the total flux of the electric field through a gaussian surface is equal to the charge contained within the surface divided by the vacuum permittivity, mathematically:

\int EdS = \frac{q}{\epsilon_0}

where

E is the electric field

dS is the element of surface

q is the charge within the gaussian surface

\epsilon_0 = 8.85\cdot 10^{-12}F/m is the vacuum permittivity

Here we want to find the electric field just inside the paint layer, so we take a sphere of radius r as Gaussian surface, where

R = 6.5 cm = 0.065 m is the radius of the plastic sphere (half the diameter)

By taking the sphere of radius r, we note that the net charge inside this sphere is zero, therefore

q=0

So we have

\int E dS=0

which means that the electric field inside the paint layer is zero.

b)

Now we want to find the electric field just outside the paint layer: therefore, we take a Gaussian sphere of radius

r=R=0.065 m

The area of the surface is

A=4\pi R^2

And since the electric field is perpendicular to the surface at any point, Gauss Law becomes

E\cdot 4\pi R^2 = \frac{q}{\epsilon_0}

The charge included within the sphere in this case is the charge on the paint layer, therefore

q=-17.0\mu C=-17.0\cdot 10^{-6}C

So, the electric field is:

E=\frac{q}{4\pi \epsilon_0 R^2}=\frac{-17.0\cdot 10^{-6}}{4\pi(8.85\cdot 10^{-12})(0.065)^2}=-3.62\cdot 10^7 N/C

where the negative sign means the direction of the field is inward, since the charge is negative.

c)

Here we want to calculate the electric field 8.00 cm outside the surface of the paint layer.

Therefore, we have to take a Gaussian sphere of radius:

r=8.00 cm + R = 8.00 + 6.50 = 14.5 cm = 0.145 m

Gauss theorem this time becomes

E\cdot 4\pi r^2 = \frac{q}{\epsilon_0}

And the charge included within the sphere is again the charge on the paint layer,

q=-17.0\mu C=-17.0\cdot 10^{-6}C

Therefore, the electric field is

E=\frac{q}{4\pi \epsilon_0 r^2}=\frac{-17.0\cdot 10^{-6}}{4\pi(8.85\cdot 10^{-12})(0.145)^2}=-7.27\cdot 10^7 N/C

Learn more about electric field:

brainly.com/question/8960054

brainly.com/question/4273177

#LearnwithBrainly

5 0
3 years ago
90cm uniform lever has a load 30N suspended at 15cm from one of it's end. If the fulcrum is at the center of gravity. The force
solniwko [45]

Answer: F = 20 N

Explanation:

I will ASSUME that the fulcrum is at the center of gravity of the lever arm, This means that the lever arm itself creates no moment about the fulcrum because there is no moment arm for that particular force.

To solve, we sum moments about any convenient point to zero (zero because there is no acceleration in the F = ma equation)

The easiest convenient point is the fulcrum

30((90/2) - 15) - F(90/2) = 0

           30(30) = F(45)

                    F = 900/45 = 20 N

3 0
2 years ago
Ship A is 32 miles north of ship B and is sailing due south at 16 mph. Ship B is sailing due east at 12 mph. At what rate is the
Zielflug [23.3K]

Answer:

\dfrac{dz}{dt} =-5.6\ mile/h

Explanation:

distance between ship A and B = 32 mile

Ship A velocity in south, dx/dt = -16 mph

Ship B is sailing toward east with speed, dy/st = 12 mph

time = 1 hour

rate of change of distance between them = ?

x be the distance travel after t time

X = 32 + x

Let distance between them be z

now, using Pythagoras theorem to calculate distance between ships after 1 hours

z² = x² + y²

z² = (32 + x)² + 12²

z² = (32 - 16)² + 12²

z = √400

z = 20 miles

now, calculation of rate of change of distnace

z² = (32 + x)² + y²

differentiating both side w.r.t. time

2 z \dfrac{dz}{dt} = 2(32+x)\dfrac{dx}{dt} + 2 y\dfrac{dy}{dt}

z \dfrac{dz}{dt} =(32-16)\dfrac{dx}{dt} +y\dfrac{dy}{dt}

20\times \dfrac{dz}{dt} =16\times (-16) +12\times 12

\dfrac{dz}{dt} =\dfrac{-112}{20}

\dfrac{dz}{dt} =-5.6\ mile/h

hence, the rate is the distance between them changing at the end of 1 hour is equal to \dfrac{dz}{dt} =-5.6\ mile/h

7 0
3 years ago
What is 1.2 kg converted into mg.<br> I need to know for step by step please?
astra-53 [7]
Here’s a good photo to reference when converting in the metric system.

Each time you move down a step you move the decimal to the right, each time you move up a step you move the decimal to the left.

We are going from 1.2 kg or kilograms, which is at the very top left of the ladder. To get to mg or milligrams, we would have to make six jumps, so we’d move the decimal over six times.

1.2 > 12. > 120. > 1200. > 12000. > 120000. > 1200000.

So our final answer would be 1,200,000mg.
4 0
3 years ago
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