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cupoosta [38]
3 years ago
5

Do magnets have to touch each other in order to experience a magnetic force? Explain

Physics
2 answers:
blondinia [14]3 years ago
8 0
Forces like magnetic and electrical force are made when an object(witch can accept the force)
gets in their force field so for the object it doesn’t have to be in touch with the source of the force.
konstantin123 [22]3 years ago
7 0
No, magnets can repel against each other and it is still a magnetic force.
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A student was trying to find the relationship between mass and force. He placed four different masses on a table and pulled them
Gwar [14]

Answer:

B. There is a direct proportion between the mass and force listed in the table.

Explanation:

From the table, the values of force increases with increase in the value of mass.

if 5kg=25 N

Finding the contant of proportionality k;

k=25/5=5

thus M=k(F)...........where M is mass in kg and F is force in newton, then

M=5F

This show that for every value of mass, we get the value of Force if we multiply by a contant k=5

This means there is a direct proportionality relation between mass and force in the table.

5 0
3 years ago
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Two students are standing on a fire escape, one twice as high as the other. Simultaneously, each drops a ball.
almond37 [142]
The second ball should strike at double the original t value
4 0
3 years ago
To practice Problem-Solving Strategy 7.2 Problems Using Mechanical Energy II. The Great Sandini is a 60.0-kg circus performer wh
sp2606 [1]

Answer:

v = 15.45 m/s

Explanation:

As per mechanical energy conservation we can say that here since friction is present in the barrel so we will have

Work done by friction force = Loss in mechanical energy

so we will have

W_f = (U_i + K_i) - (U_f + K_f)

here we know that

W_f = F_f . d

W_f = 40 \times 4

W_f = 160 J

Initial compression in the spring is given as

F = kx

4400 = 1100 x

x = 4 m

now from above equation

W_f = (\frac{1}{2}kx^2 + 0) - (mgh + \frac{1}{2}mv^2)

160 = (\frac{1}{2}1100(4^2) + 0) - (60 \times 9.8\times 2.50 + \frac{1}{2}(60)v^2)

160 = 8800 - 1470 - 30 v^2

v = 15.45 m/s

3 0
3 years ago
A man walking on a tightrope carries a long a pole which has heavy items attached to the two ends. If he were to walk the tight-
katen-ka-za [31]

Answer:

 I_weight = M L²

this value is much larger and with it it is easier to restore balance.I

Explanation:

When man walks a tightrope, he carries a linear velocity, this velocity is related to the angular velocity by

            v = w r

For man to maintain equilibrium needs the total moment to be zero

             ∑τ = I α

              S  τ = 0

The forces on the home are the weight of the masses, the weight of the man and the support on the rope, the latter two are zero taque the distance to the center of rotation is zero.

Therefore the moment of the masses and the open is the one that must be zero.

If the man carries only the bar, we could approximate it by two open one on each side of the axis of rotation formed by the free of the rope

              I = ⅓ m L² / 4

As the length of half the length of the bar and the mass of the bar is small, this moment is small, therefore at the moment if there is some imbalance it is difficult to recover.

If, in addition to the opening, each of them carries a specific weight, the moment of inertia of this weight is

             I_weight = M L²

this value is much larger and with it it is easier to restore balance.

5 0
3 years ago
if you have a kinetic energy of 1470 J, and you are 60kg mass and 0 m above the ground, what is you velocity?
laiz [17]

Answer:

The 39.

Explanation:

8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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