Answer:
Explanation:
To find the angular velocity of the tank at which the bottom of the tank is exposed
From the information given:
At rest, the initial volume of the tank is:

where;
height h which is the height for the free surface in a rotating tank is expressed as:

at the bottom surface of the tank;
r = 0, h = 0
∴
0 = 0 + C
C = 0
Thus; the free surface height in a rotating tank is:

Now; the volume of the water when the tank is rotating is:
dV = 2π × r × h × dr
Taking the integral on both sides;

replacing the value of h in equation (2); we have:


![V_f = \dfrac{ \pi \omega ^2}{g} \Big [ \dfrac{r^4}{4} \Big]^R_0](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=V_f%20%3D%20%5Cdfrac%7B%20%5Cpi%20%5Comega%20%5E2%7D%7Bg%7D%20%5CBig%20%5B%20%20%5Cdfrac%7Br%5E4%7D%7B4%7D%20%5CBig%5D%5ER_0)
![V_f = \dfrac{ \pi \omega ^2}{g} \Big [ \dfrac{R^4}{4} \Big] --- (3)](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=V_f%20%3D%20%5Cdfrac%7B%20%5Cpi%20%5Comega%20%5E2%7D%7Bg%7D%20%5CBig%20%5B%20%20%5Cdfrac%7BR%5E4%7D%7B4%7D%20%5CBig%5D%20---%20%283%29)
Since the volume of the water when it is at rest and when the angular speed rotates at an angular speed is equal.
Then 
Replacing equation (1) and (3)






Finally, the angular velocity of the tank at which the bottom of the tank is exposed = 10.48 rad/s
You'll get destructive interference if both waves are the same frequency but the peaks of one wave overlap the troughs of the other wave.
That can only happen if one wave has to travel (1/2 wavelength) farther than the other one to reach your ears. So we want to find the lowest frequency for which 52 cm is 1/2 of a wavelength ... the wavelength is 104 cm.
Frequency = (speed) / (wavelength)
Frequency = (344 m/s) / (104 cm)
Frequency = (344 m/s) / (1.04 meter)
Frequency = (344 / 1.04) per second
Frequency = 330.8 Hz .
Answer:
No
Explanation:
If the coil is accelerated parallel to the magnetic field, it means also that the force on the coil acts parallel to the field. For current to be induced in a coil, a basic condition must be met which is that the directions of force (acceleration) and the magnetic field must be perpendicular to each other. This brings about current being induced in a direction perpendicular to bothering the directions of the force acting on the coil and the that of the magnetic field. This current would flow through the coil in either a clockwise or anticlockwise manner.
Since the coil is accelerated parallel to the magnetic field, no current is induced in it.
Answer:
work
Explanation:
it is a scalar quantity. it is equal to product of force and distance if the direction of motion is in direction of force in straight line