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Naddik [55]
3 years ago
7

Part a consider another special case in which the inclined plane is vertical (θ=π/2). in this case, for what value of m1 would t

he acceleration of the two blocks be equal to zero?
Physics
1 answer:
Aloiza [94]3 years ago
6 0

The answer would be m1 = m2

FBD of m1 is the sum of the forces in the y direction = 0 
0 = T - m1*g 
transposing:
m1*g = T 

FBD of m2 is the sum of the forces in the y direction = 0 
0 = T - m2*g 
transposing:
m2*g = T 

set them equal to each other and solve for m1 
m1*g = m2*g

= m1 = m2

 

Explanation:

The force on individual mass would be downwards or descending and equal to the tension shaped by the other mass, which would be upward or rising by the act of the seamless pulley, so the forces cancel on each mass.

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Read 2 more answers
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SVETLANKA909090 [29]

The resonant frequency of a circuit is the frequency \omega_0 at which the equivalent impedance of a circuit is purely real (the imaginary part is null).

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Replacing we have,

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From this relationship we can also appreciate that the resonance frequency infers the maximum related transfer in the system and that therefore given an input a maximum output is obtained.

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