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Olegator [25]
3 years ago
13

Round the sum of 40.88 and 16.6 to the nearest tenth

Mathematics
2 answers:
klasskru [66]3 years ago
7 0
Your will round the sum to 57.5
pantera1 [17]3 years ago
3 0

I'm assuming you don't want the numbers to be rounded until after they're added soooo:

40.88 + 16.6 = 57.48

After rounding to the nearest tenth : 57.5

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What does a equal -5(6a+21)=-15
borishaifa [10]
Step 1 : Simplify both sides
-5(6a+21)=-15
(-5)(6a)+(-5)(21)=-15
-30a-105=-15
Step 2 : Add 105 to both sides
-30a-105+105=-15+105
-30a=90
Step 3 : Divide both sides by -30
-30a=90
—————
-30 -30

a = -3
7 0
3 years ago
Two isosceles triangles share the same base. Prove that the medians to this base are collinear. (There are two cases in this pro
Anna71 [15]

Answer:

Given: Two Isosceles triangle ABC and Δ PBC having same base BC. AD is the median of Δ ABC and PD is the median of Δ PBC.

To prove: Point A,D,P are collinear.

Proof:

→Case 1.  When vertices A and P are opposite side of Base BC.

In Δ ABD and Δ ACD

AB= AC   [Given]

AD is common.

BD=DC  [median of a triangle divides the side in two equal parts]

Δ ABD ≅Δ ACD [SSS]

∠1=∠2 [CPCT].........................(1)

Similarly, Δ PBD ≅ Δ PCD [By SSS]

 ∠ 3 = ∠4 [CPCT].................(2)

But,  ∠1+∠2+ ∠ 3 + ∠4 =360° [At a point angle formed is 360°]

2 ∠2 + 2∠ 4=360° [using (1) and (2)]

∠2 + ∠ 4=180°

But ,∠2 and ∠ 4 forms a linear pair i.e Point D is common point of intersection of median AD and PD of ΔABC and ΔPBC respectively.

So, point A, D, P lies on a line.

CASE 2.

When ΔABC and ΔPBC lie on same side of Base BC.

In ΔPBD and ΔPCD

PB=PC[given]

PD is common.

BD =DC [Median of a triangle divides the side in two equal parts]

ΔPBD ≅ ΔPCD  [SSS]

∠PDB=∠PDC [CPCT]

Similarly, By proving ΔADB≅ΔADC we will get,  ∠ADB=∠ADC[CPCT]

As PD and AD are medians to same base BC of ΔPBC and ΔABC.

∴ P,A,D lie on a line i.e they are collinear.




3 0
3 years ago
Need help have no idea how to do this
Anna11 [10]
Number one is parallel


4 0
3 years ago
And a certain watery an urn contains balls number 1 to 34 from this are in five balls are chosen randomly without replacement fo
lina2011 [118]

The probability of winning the lottery with one ticket is mathematically given as

P(W)=2.99484408*10^{−8}

<h3>What is the probability of winning the lottery with one ticket?</h3>

Generally, the equation for the probability is  mathematically given as

P(1st ball)=1/34

one ball drawn remain

34-1=33

P(2nd ball)=1/33

In conclusion, the probability of winning the lottery with one ticket is

P(W)=1/34*1/33*1/32*1/31*1/30

P(W)=2.99484408*10^{−8}

Read more about probability

brainly.com/question/11234923

#SPJ1

3 0
1 year ago
The measure of HMQ is (4x – 20)° ?
Kipish [7]

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
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