If the kinetic energy of each ball is equal to that of the other,
then
(1/2) (mass of ppb) (speed of ppb)² = (1/2) (mass of gb) (speed of gb)²
Multiply each side by 2:
(mass of ppb) (speed of ppb)² = (mass of gb) (speed of gb)²
Divide each side by (mass of gb) and by (speed of ppb)² :
(mass of ppb)/(mass of gb) = (speed of gb)²/(speed of ppb)²
Take square root of each side:
√ (ratio of their masses) = ( 1 / ratio of their speeds)²
By trying to do this perfectly rigorously and elegantly, I'm also
using up a lot of space and guaranteeing that nobody will be
able to follow what I have written. Let's just come in from the
cold, and say it the clear, easy way:
If their kinetic energies are equal, then the product of each
mass and its speed² must be the same number.
If one ball has less mass than the other one, then the speed²
of the lighter one must be greater than the speed² of the heavier
one, in order to keep the products equal.
The pingpong ball is moving faster than the golf ball.
The directions of their motions are irrelevant.
Biological because its studies the function of the brain’s lobes
d = distance traveled by her on her bicycle on a long flat road = 24 kilometer
t = time taken by her to travel distance "d" on her bicycle on a long flat road = 1.2 hours
v = average speed of vivian = ?
we know that average speed is given as
v = d/t
inserting the values in the above formula
v = 24 kilometer / 1.2 hour
v = 20 kilometer/hour
hence the correct choice is
C) 20 km/h
Answer:a. Magnetic dipole moment is 0.3412Am²
b. Torque is zero(0)N.m
Explanation: The magnetic dipole moment U is given as the product of the number of turns n times the current I times the area A
That is,
U = n*I*A
But Area A is given as pi*radius² since it is a circular coil
Radius given is 5cm converting to meter we divide by 100 so we have our radius to be 0.05m. So area A is
A = 3.142*(0.05)² =7.86*EXP {-3} m²
Current I is 2 A
Number of turns is 20
So magnetic dipole moment U is
U = 20*2*7.86*EXP {-3}=0.3142A.m²
b. Torque is given as the cross product of the magnetic field B and magnetic dipole moment U
Torque = B x U =B*U*Sine(theta)
But since the magnetic field is directed parallel to the plane of the coil from the question, it means that the angle between them is zero and sine zero is equals 0(zero) if you substitute that into the formula for torque you will find out that your torque would equals zero(0)N.m
