if the velocity of the car reduces from 70km/h to 50km/h then the speed of the car will be equal to the speed of the lorry...
thus the relative velocity will be 0
Answer:
Part a)
Part b)
t = 12 s
Explanation:
Part a)
Tension in the rope at a distance x from the lower end is given as
so the speed of the wave at that position is given as
here we know that
now we have
Part b)
time taken by the wave to reach the top is given as
Answer:
23 m/s downward
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<em>Taking the downward direction as positive</em>
<u>We are given:</u>
Initial velocity of the marble (u) = 0 m/s
Time interval (t) = 2.3 seconds
Final velocity (v) = x m/s
<u>Solving for the Final velocity:</u>
<u>Acceleration of the Marble:</u>
We know that gravity will make the marble accelerate at a constant acceleration of 10 m/s
<u>Final velocity:</u>
v = u + at [First equation of motion]
x = 0 + (10)(2.3) [replacing the given values]
x = 23 m/s
Hence, after 2.3 seconds, the marble will move at a velocity of 23 m/s in the downward direction
Explanation:
Formula for calculating the area of a rectangle A = Length *width
For statement A;
Given area of a rectangle with measured length = 2.536 mm and width = 1.4 mm.
Area of the rectangle = 2.536mm * 1.4mm
Area of the rectangle = 3.5504mm²
The rule of significant figures states that we should always convert the answer to the least number of significant figure amount the given value in question. Since 1.4mm has 2 significant figure, hence we will convert our answer to 2 significant figure.
Area of the rectangle = 3.6mm² (to 2sf)
For statement B;
Given area of a rectangle with measured length = 2.536 mm and width = 1.41 mm.
Area of the rectangle = 2.536mm * 1.41mm
Area of the rectangle = 3.57576mm²
Similarly, Since 1.41mm has 3 significant figure compare to 2.536 that has 4sf, hence we will convert our answer to 3 significant figure.
Area of the rectangle = 3.58mm² (to 3sf)
Based on the conversion, it can be seen that 3.6mm² is greater than 3.58mm², hence the area of rectangle in statement A is greater than the area of the rectangle in statement B.
Answer:
5235.84 kg
Explanation:
There is one theorem - whose proof I will never remember without having to drag calculus in there - that says that the variation of momentum is equal to the force applied times the time the application last.
As long as the engine isn't ejecting mass - at this point it's a whole new can of worm - we know the force, we know the variation in speed, time to find the mass. But first, let's convert the variation of speed in meters per second. The ship gains 250 kmh, 
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