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puteri [66]
3 years ago
10

How do I spell pineapple apple pen

Physics
1 answer:
Aliun [14]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

ppap

Explanation:

idk man :vvvv. v vv.

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Kyle lays a mirror flat on the floor and aims a laser at the mirror. The laser beam reflects off the mirror and strikes an adjac
Elena L [17]

Answer:

The angle of incidence is  \theta_i  =42.6^o

Explanation:

The diagram for this question is shown on the first uploaded image

From the question we are told that

   The distance between the mirror and the wall is  a = 33.7 cm

    The height of the above the mirror is  b = 36.7 cm

Generally the angle which the reflected ray make with the mirror is mathematically evaluated as

             \alpha  =tan ^{-1} (\frac{b}{a})

substituting values

             \alpha = tan ^{-1}( \frac{36.7}{33.7})

            \alpha =47.4^o

From the diagram we can deduce that  the angle of incidence is

             \theta_i  = 90 - \alpha

So          \theta_i = 90 - 47.4

              \theta_i  =42.6^o

5 0
3 years ago
The epidermis is the top layer of skin compared to the underlying dermis of the
elena-14-01-66 [18.8K]

Answer:

just as rea was situated at a distance in picture and a half dozen years old in his first comment in picture the actor was the first thing he had ever heard about it he reati was the only person who has

Explanation:

plz help you get the best in your house but muje has been in a relationship since the last

4 0
3 years ago
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A force of 40 N accelerates a 5 block at 6 m/s ^ 2 along a horizontal surface a. What would the block's acceleration be if the s
Bas_tet [7]

Answer:

a = 8 m/s^2, Ffriction = 10 N, μk = 0.205

Explanation:

a. Force = Mass*Acceleration,

(since you didn't add the units..."5 block"....for the mass, I will assume it to be in kg, per SI units)

40 N = 5 kg*acceleration,

a = 40/5 = 8 m/s^2

b. As you know newtons second law (F=m*a) is actually in the form Fnet = m*a. Which means that if the friction force comes into play, it would be Fapplied - Ffriction = m*a.

Fapplied - Ffriction = m*a,

40 - Ffriction = 5*6,

40 - Ffriction = 30,

Ffriction = 40 - 30 = 10 N

c. The coefficient of kinetic friction is calculated by the formula "Ffriction = μk*Fnormal".

10 = μk*Fnormal (Fnormal = m*g = 5*9.8)

10 = μk*49,

μk=10/49 ≈ 0.205

7 0
3 years ago
Final exam answers for physical science apex?
Tju [1.3M]
First table:

1. For height, we usually use cm. If it is a must to use the conversion to solve for number 1, we can first convert the ft into m then to cm and then convert the in to cm and then add the values.

5ftx\frac{0.305m}{1ft}  = 1.525mx\frac{100cm}{1m} =152.5cm

then we convert the remaining 2in into cm and add it up:
2inx\frac{2.54cm}{1in}=5.08cm

152.5cm + 5.08cm = 157.58cm or 157.6cm

Another way to do this is to convert the ft to in and add it up to the remaining 2 in then convert to cm. The answer would be more or less the same. 

2. For weight, we will convert lbs to kg. 

105lbsx\frac{1kg}{2.2lbs} =  \frac{105kg}{2.2} = 47.7kg

3. For distance we will convert mi to km. 

1.1mix\frac{1.61km}{1mi} = 1.8km

4. The unit mph is miles per hour and we will want to convert that into kph or kilometers per hour. You will use the same method that you did above to get it. We do not need to convert hours anymore, so it will stay as is.

65 \frac{mi}{hr}x\frac{1.61km}{1mi} = 104.7\frac{km}{hr}

5. Now for the next one it is very straightforward because 1V = 1V no matter where you go. So if the given is 220V then that means that the converted value is also 220V. 

6. Now to convert Fahrenheit to Celsius, then all you have to do is use the formula given above and fill in what you know. 

The given is  70°F

°C = \frac{5}{9} (F - 32)
     = \frac{5}{9} (70 - 32)
     = \frac{5}{9} (38)
     = \frac{190}{9}
     = 21.1°C

The second table is very easy, all you need to do is convert the values to scientific notation or the other way around. All you need to do is move the decimal till you have a coefficient that is between 1 to 10 and then count how many times you moved the decimal. That will be the number or the exponent of 10. 

1. $150,000 = $1.5 x 10^5

If you moved the decimal to the left, the exponent will be positive. 

Now the other way around. To convert scientific notation to standard form, just move the decimal the number of places indicated by the exponent of 10. If it is positive, you will move to the right and if it is negative, you will move to the left. 

2. 2.59x10^6 = 2,590,000m

Now notice that the next value is less than 1. This means you will be moving the the decimal to the right to make it have a coefficient of 1 to 10. You need to move it 3 times to the right so that means the exponent will be negative. 

3. 0.005in = 5.0 x 10^(-3)in

Now do not forget to put in your units. In math or even in science the unit is EXTREMELY IMPORTANT. 

Hope this helped you and good luck!
4 0
3 years ago
I WILL MARK BRAINIEST
ch4aika [34]

Answer:

i think answer b

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
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