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lozanna [386]
3 years ago
7

AM MARKING BRAINIEST!!!

Mathematics
2 answers:
xxMikexx [17]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

1.25

Step-by-step explanation:

3.75 divided by 3 = 1.25

Snezhnost [94]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

3 : 3,75 = $ 0.8 per pound

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A recipe calls for 1/3 cup of brown sugar for 1 batch. How many batches can be made by one and two-thirds cups? 4 students drew
BlackZzzverrR [31]

Answer:

5 batches

Step-by-step explanation:

1/3 cup of sugar = 1 batch

1 1/3 is 5 times the amount of 1 batch

so 5 batches could be made with 1 1/3 cups of brown shugar

6 0
3 years ago
For the high school basketball game, it costs $8 for every 2 tickets.
matrenka [14]

Answer:

$8   16    24     32   40     48      56      64   72      80

---------------------------------------------------------------------------

4     8     12     16    20     24     28     32     36     40

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which angles are coterminal with −6π5 ? Select each correct answer. 14π/5 −16π/5 −π/5 −11π/5
wariber [46]
ANSWER

-  \frac{16 \pi}{5}  \: and \:   \frac{14\pi}{5}


EXPLANATION

Coterminal angles are angles in standard position that have the same terminal side.


To find an angle in standard position that is coterminal with

-  \frac{6 \pi}{5}

We add or subtract multiples of
2 \pi

The first addition gives,

-  \frac{6 \pi}{5}  + 2 \pi =  \frac{4 \pi}{5}


We add the second multiple to get,

-  \frac{6 \pi}{5}  +2( 2 \pi )=  \frac{14 \pi}{5}

Since this is the maximum value among the options, we end the addition here.


Let us now subtract the first multiple to get,


-  \frac{6 \pi}{5}  -   2 \pi =   - \frac{16 \pi}{5}


We end the subtraction here because this is the least value among the options.


Therefore the angles that are coterminal with
-  \frac{6 \pi}{5}
are

-  \frac{16 \pi}{5}  \: and \:   \frac{14\pi}{5}


8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
If the scale on a map is 1/4 in. = 50 miles, how many miles do 3 3/8 inches represent?
Korvikt [17]
Hey there Fish Girl!

So, if \left[\begin{array}{ccc}1/4 \end{array}\right] equals 50 miles, then we would do this multiplied by . . . . 

So, if we would want to go to 3 whole, we would then have to go to the number 3 of course. So then, we do \left[\begin{array}{ccc}4*3=12\end{array}\right] and then from this, we would have to multiply this my 50.

The reason to why we would have to do this is because 1/4 of a mile is 50, so then, sense we are trying to get to the number 3, then, from doing this,we would determine a figure out how many miles this would conclude to be.

\left[\begin{array}{ccc}12*50\end{array}\right]   =\left[\begin{array}{ccc}\boxed{\boxed{600}} \ so \ far!\end{array}\right]

So, now, we have covered 3 as a whole, then we would have to see how 3/8 and also 1/4 can relate to each other.

So, in this case,\boxed{\boxed{ \frac{3}{8} \ would \ be \ almost \ \boxed{half} \\ \ because \ it \ is \ almost  \frac{4}{8} }}

So, most likely, it would stay the same as it is, 1/4 because this is almost half to.

SO ALL WE WOULD NEED TO DO NOW IS TO ADD . . . . . 

\left[\begin{array}{ccc}\left[\begin{array}{ccc}\boxed{\boxed{600+50 \ or  \frac{1}{4}=650}} \end{array}\right]\end{array}\right]

YOUR CORRECT AND FINAL ANSWER TO THIS QUESTION WOULD BE. . . . 

\left[\begin{array}{ccc}650 \ miles\end{array}\right]

Hope this helps you fish Girl! :)
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Marty is making a layaway purchase of a $1,500 couch at Frank’s Furniture Store. He will be paying $156 every 2 weeks for 20 wee
Burka [1]

Answer:

$60

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
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