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kicyunya [14]
3 years ago
7

ASTM A229 oil-tempered carbon steel is used for a helical coil spring. The spring is wound with D = 50 mm d = 10.0 mm, and a pit

ch (distance between corresponding points of adjacent coils), of 14 mm. If the spring is compressed solid, would the spring return to its original free length when the force is removed?
Physics
2 answers:
IgorLugansk [536]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: he got  the answer above

horrorfan [7]3 years ago
6 0

Answer

given,

D = 50 mm = 0.05 m

d = 10 mm = 0.01 m

Force to compress the spring

F = \dfrac{d^4G\delta}{8D^3N}

\dfrac{\delta}{N} = p - d = 14 - 10 = 4 mm

F = \dfrac{d^4G}{8D^3}\times 0.004

F = \dfrac{0.1^4\times 79\times 10^9}{8\times 0.05^3}\times 0.004

     F = 3160 N

stress correction factor from stress correction curve is equal to 1.1

now, calculation of corrected stress

\tau = \dfrac{8FDk_s}{\pi d^3}

\tau = \dfrac{8\times 3160 \times 0.05 \times 1.1}{\pi \times 0.01^3}

              = 442.6 Mpa

The tensile strength of the steel material of  ASTM A229 is equal to 1300 Mpa

now,

\tau_s \leq 0.45 S_u

\tau_s \leq 0.45 \times 1300

\tau_s \leq 585\ Mpa

since corrected stress is less than the \tau_s

hence, spring will return to its original shape.

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Answer:

The correct answer might be r = 2.8^{27} meters.

Explanation:

<u>The Answer Given might not be correct, I just did what my brain said.</u>

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Putting this in the equation to calculate the magnetic force as:

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                                   In order to calculate the velocity of electron, We should know the potiential difference with which the electrons are accelerated which in our case is 500ev. If "V" is the potiential difference, the energy gained by electrons during accelreation will be Ve. This appear as kinectic enrgy of electrons as,

         

                        K.E = Ve

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r = \frac{mv}{Be}  \sqrt{\frac{2ve}{m} }

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r = \sqrt{\frac{(2)(9.1^{-31})(500) (1.6^{-19} )  }{ (1.75^{11} ) (10^{-4} ) } }

r = 2.8^{27} meters.

                               

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