1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
Dmitrij [34]
3 years ago
12

Explain the bending of light as a property of a warping of space

Physics
1 answer:
saveliy_v [14]3 years ago
3 0

Explanation:

According to the general theory of relativity, spacetime curves due to the energy it contains. Since mass is a form of energy, "create" gravity. That is, gravity is the effect observed as a consequence of the curvature of spacetime. Therefore, gravity curves the path of light because it curves the space through which light passes.

You might be interested in
An object has a mass of 6kg. calculate it's gpe​
m_a_m_a [10]

Explanation:

When m=<em>mass</em>

G=<em>a</em><em>c</em><em>c</em><em>e</em><em>l</em><em>e</em><em>r</em><em>a</em><em>t</em><em>i</em><em>o</em><em>n</em><em> </em><em>d</em><em>u</em><em>e</em><em> </em><em>t</em><em>o</em><em> </em><em>gravity</em>

<em> </em><em> </em><em> </em><em> </em><em> </em><em> </em><em> </em><em> </em><em> </em><em> </em><em> </em><em>H</em><em>=</em><em>h</em><em>e</em><em>i</em><em>g</em><em>h</em><em>t</em>

<em>U</em><em>s</em><em>i</em><em>n</em><em>g</em><em> </em><em>f</em><em>o</em><em>r</em><em>m</em><em>u</em><em>l</em><em>a</em>

<em>M</em><em>g</em><em>h</em>

<em>(</em><em>M</em><em>=</em><em>6</em><em>, </em><em>g</em><em>=</em><em>10</em><em>,</em><em>h</em><em>=</em><em>?</em><em>) </em>

6×10×h

=60joules

7 0
3 years ago
3. Neha travels 4 m towards the north, 3m towards the east, and then 7 m towards south, find the displacement and total distance
Digiron [165]

Answer:

Explanation:

Explanation: total displacement =3√2m. and total distance covered=14m. I hope this is right and helps u.

7 0
3 years ago
A 8.34 × 103-kg lunar landing craft is about to touch down on the surface of the moon, where the acceleration due to gravity is
Mnenie [13.5K]

Answer:

21870.3156 N

Explanation:

u = Initial velocity

v = Final velocity

s = Displacement

a = Acceleration

g = Acceleration due to gravity = 1.6 m/s²

Equation of motion

v^2-u^2=2as\\\Rightarrow a=\frac{v^2-u^2}{2s}\\\Rightarrow a=\frac{0^2-18.2^2}{2\times 162}\\\Rightarrow a=-1.02234\ m/s^2

The acceleration of the craft should be 1.02234 m/s²

F=ma\\\Rightarrow F=8.34\times 10^3\times 1.02234\\\Rightarrow F=8526.3156\ N

Weight of the craft

W=mg\\\Rightarrow W=8.34\times 10^3\times 1.6\\\Rightarrow W=13344\ N

Thrust

F_t=F+W\\\Rightarrow F_t=8526.3156+13344\\\Rightarrow F_t=21870.3156\ N

The thrust needed to reduce the velocity to zero at the instant when the craft touches the lunar surface is 21870.3156 N

3 0
3 years ago
If a car is traveling at an average speed of 60 kilometers per hour how long does it take to travel 12 kilometers
lara31 [8.8K]

Answer:

The time taken to travel is, t = 12 minutes

Explanation:

Given data,

The speed of the car, v = 60 km/h

The distance of travel, d = 12 km

The time taken for the travel is t = ?

The speed is defined as the distance divided by the time taken to travel. The formula for speed is,

                                  v = d/t

∴                                  t = d/v

                                    t = 12 km / 60 km/h

                                    t = 0.2 h

                                     t = 12 minutes

Hence, the time taken to travel is, t = 12 minutes.

5 0
3 years ago
A heat engine operates between two reservoirs at 300K. During each cycle, it absorbs 200 calories from the high temperature rese
yanalaym [24]

(a) Zero

The maximum efficiency (Carnot efficiency) of a heat engine is given by

\eta=1-\frac{T_C}{T_H}

where

T_C is the low-temperature reservoir

T_H is the high-temperature reservoir

For the heat engine in the problem, we have:

T_C = 300K

T_H = 300K

Therefore, the maximum efficiency is

\eta=1-\frac{300}{300}=0

(b) Zero

The efficiency of a heat engine can also be rewritten as

\eta = \frac{W}{Q_H}

where

W is the work performed by the engine

Q_H is the heat absorbed from the high-temperature reservoir

In this problem, we know

\eta=0

Therefore, since the term Q_H cannot be equal to infinity, the numerator of the fraction must be zero as well, which means

W = 0

So the engine cannot perform any work.

5 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • Why is it expensive to bring electricity into urban areas?
    15·2 answers
  • A body is dropped from a height of 30m. What is the velocity of the body after it has covered a distance of 20 m? (Given g= 10 m
    6·2 answers
  • Give reason.<br><br><br>b} String roller is an example of wheel and axel .Why?<br><br>​
    6·1 answer
  • Question 9
    15·1 answer
  • The physical quantity represented as rate of change of change in position in a
    12·1 answer
  • Identify how any organisms from the video showed variation, competition or overproduction. (Make sure to incude the name of the
    5·1 answer
  • Revolution: One orit of an object in space around another_ days?​
    6·2 answers
  • When does it have kinetic energy
    8·1 answer
  • Which of the following statement describes a nonpolar molecule
    6·2 answers
  • PLEASE HELP ME ON THIS ONE ANYONE
    13·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!