Step-by-step explanation:
Given that,
a)
X ~ Bernoulli
and Y ~ Bernoulli 
X + Y = Z
The possible value for Z are Z = 0 when X = 0 and Y = 0
and Z = 1 when X = 0 and Y = 1 or when X = 1 and Y = 0
If X and Y can not be both equal to 1 , then the probability mass function of the random variable Z takes on the value of 0 for any value of Z other than 0 and 1,
Therefore Z is a Bernoulli random variable
b)
If X and Y can not be both equal to 1
then,
or 
and 

c)
If both X = 1 and Y = 1 then Z = 2
The possible values of the random variable Z are 0, 1 and 2.
since a Bernoulli variable should be take on only values 0 and 1 the random variable Z does not have Bernoulli distribution
Answer:
Santana's thinking is not correct, because the correct translation is 2 units to the left, not right.
Step-by-step explanation:
I just got that question and I got it right.
Answer:
y=35
Step-by-step explanation:
y in (-oo:+oo)
14 = (2*y)/5 // - (2*y)/5
14-((2*y)/5) = 0
(-2/5)*y+14 = 0
14-2/5*y = 0 // - 14
-2/5*y = -14 // : -2/5
y = -14/(-2/5)
y = 35
y = 35
Answer:
x=3
y=5
Step-by-step explanation:
3×3=9
5×5=25
9+25=34
[3^2+5^2=34]
3^2=9
2×5=10
9+10=19
[3^2+2×5=19]