Answer:
b. Friction decreased when he went from pavement to ice and then increased two more times.
Explanation:
Frictional force depends on the normal force of the surface and a friction coefficient.
Since we're talking about the same car, the value of 
will remain constant whereas μ will represent the change in the frictional coefficient of the surface. Now we consider the different surfaces, cars will slide in an icy road which means that the frictional coefficient is smaller than the pavement.
After Joshua returns to the pavement road, the resulting frictional force increases and will do so one more time when he reaches the gravel road. Gravel roads have greater frictional coefficients than pavement roads which means the frictional force will increase a second time.
Answer:
A heat engine is a device that converts internal energy into work. Internal energy is increased by the addition of heat. The efficiency of a heat engine is a measurement of how efficiently it works. Efficiency compares the amount of useful energy extracted from a process to the total energy input. The heat engine will be more efficient if the percentage is higher.
Explanation:
Answer:
The answer is compound
Explanation:
heterogeneous mixture is wronggggg
Answer:
B = 38.2μT
Explanation:
By the Ampere's law you have that the magnetic field generated by a current, in a wire, is given by:
(1)
μo: magnetic permeability of vacuum = 4π*10^-7 T/A
r: distance from the center of the cylinder, in which B is calculated
Ir: current for the distance r
In this case, you first calculate the current Ir, by using the following relation:
J: current density
Ar: cross sectional area for r in the hollow cylinder
Ar is given by 
The current density is given by the total area and the total current:
R2: outer radius = 26mm = 26*10^-3 m
R1: inner radius = 5 mm = 5*10^-3 m
IT: total current = 4 A
Then, the current in the wire for a distance r is:
(2)
You replace the last result of equation (2) into the equation (1):
Finally. you replace the values of all parameters:
hence, the magnitude of the magnetic field at a point 12 mm from the center of the hollow cylinder, is 38.2μT
I think the key here is to be exquisitely careful at all times, and
any time we make any move, keep our units with it.
We're given two angular speeds, and we need to solve for a time.
Outer (slower) planet:
Angular speed = ω rad/sec
Time per unit angle = (1/ω) sec/rad
Angle per revolution = 2π rad
Time per revolution = (1/ω sec/rad) · (2π rad) = 2π/ω seconds .
Inner (faster) planet:
Angular speed = 2ω rad/sec
Time per unit angle = (1/2ω) sec/rad
Angle per revolution = 2π rad
Time per revolution = (1/2ω sec/rad) · (2π rad) = 2π/2ω sec = π/ω seconds.
So far so good. We have the outer planet taking 2π/ω seconds for one
complete revolution, and the inner planet doing it in only π/ω seconds ...
half the time for double the angular speed. Perfect !
At this point, I know what I'm thinking, but it's hard to explain.
I'm pretty sure that the planets are in line on the same side whenever the
total elapsed time is something like a common multiple of their periods.
What I mean is:
They're in line, SOMEwhere on the circles, when
(a fraction of one orbit) = (the same fraction of the other orbit)
AND
the total elapsed time is a common multiple of their periods.
Wait ! Ignore all of that. I'm doing a good job of confusing myself, and
probably you too. It may be simpler than that. (I hope so.) Throw away
those last few paragraphs.
The planets are in line again as soon as the faster one has 'lapped'
the slower one ... gone around one more time.
So, however many of the longer period have passed, ONE MORE
of the shorter period have passed. We're just looking for the Least
Common Multiple of the two periods.
K (2π/ω seconds) = (K+1) (π/ω seconds)
2Kπ/ω = Kπ/ω + π/ω
Subtract Kπ/ω : Kπ/ω = π/ω
Multiply by ω/π : K = 1
(Now I have a feeling that I have just finished re-inventing the wheel.)
And there we have it:
In the time it takes the slower planet to revolve once,
the faster planet revolves twice, and catches up with it.
It will be 2π/ω seconds before the planets line up again.
When they do, they are again in the same position as shown
in the drawing.
To describe it another way . . .
When Kanye has completed its first revolution ...
Bieber has made it halfway around.
Bieber is crawling the rest of the way to the starting point while ...
Kanye is doing another complete revolution.
Kanye laps Bieber just as they both reach the starting point ...
Bieber for the first time, Kanye for the second time.
You're welcome. The generous bounty of 5 points is very gracious,
and is appreciated. The warm cloudy water and green breadcrust
are also delicious.
