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Vaselesa [24]
3 years ago
14

At what rate does gravity cause objects to accelerate at sea level on earth

Physics
1 answer:
VLD [36.1K]3 years ago
5 0

The acceleration due to gravity on Earth is 9.8 m/s per second.

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What is the gravitational force between Mars and the sun? 7.43 × 1030 N 1.79 × 1026 N 1.65 × 1021 N 3.76 × 1032 N
VMariaS [17]

The gravitational force between Mars and the Sun is 1.65\cdot 10^{21} N

Explanation:

The magnitude of the gravitational force between two objects is given by  the equation:

F=G\frac{m_1 m_2}{r^2}

where

G=6.67\cdot 10^{-11} m^3 kg^{-1}s^{-2} is the gravitational constant

m1, m2 are the masses of the two objects

r is the separation between them

In this problem, we have:

m_1 = 1.99\cdot 10^{30} kg is the mass of the Sun

m_2 = 6.39\cdot 10^{23} kg is the mass of Mars

r=229\cdot 10^6 km = 229\cdot 10^9 m is the average distance Mars-Sun

Substituting into the equation, we find the gravitational force:

F=(6.67\cdot 10^{-11})\frac{(1.99\cdot 10^{30})(6.39\cdot 10^{23})}{(229\cdot 10^9)^2}=1.62\cdot 10^{21} N

So, the closest answer is

1.65\cdot 10^{21} N

Learn more about gravitational force:

brainly.com/question/1724648

brainly.com/question/12785992

#LearnwithBrainly

4 0
3 years ago
A resonance tube can be used to measured the speed of sound in air. A tuning fork is held above the opening of the tube and stru
LenaWriter [7]

Answer:

330.24 Hz

Explanation:

Given:

Frequency, f = 320 Hz

L1 = 25.8 cm

L2 = 78.4 cm

L3 = 131.1 cm

Let the wavelength be λ

Then, L1 which is the length of the column of air is  λ/4.

λ/4 = 25.8 cm

λ = 25.8 × 4 = 103.2 cm = 1.032 m

Then, speed of sound in air is:

v = λ f

⇒ v = 1.032 × 320 Hz

⇒ v = 330.24 m/s

7 0
3 years ago
he fan blades on a jet engine make one thousand revolutions in a time of 54.9 ms. What is the angular frequency of the blades?
Gnesinka [82]

So, the angular frequency of the blades approximately <u>36.43π rad/s</u>.

<h3>Introduction</h3>

Hi ! Here I will discuss about the angular frequency or what is also often called the angular velocity because it has the same unit dimensions. <u>Angular frequency occurs, when an object vibrates (either moving harmoniously / oscillating or moving in a circle)</u>. Angular frequency can be roughly interpreted as the magnitude of the change in angle (in units of rad) per unit time. So, based on this understanding, the angular frequency can be calculated using the equation :

\boxed{\sf{\bold{\omega = \frac{\theta}{t}}}}

With the following condition :

  • \sf{\omega} = angular frequency (rad/s)
  • \sf{\theta} = change of angle value (rad)
  • t = interval of the time (s)

<h3>Problem Solving</h3>

We know that :

  • \sf{\theta} = change of angle value = 1,000 revolution = 1,000 × 2π rad = 2,000π rad/s >> Remember 1 rev = 2π rad/s.
  • t = interval of the time = 54.9 s.

What was asked :

  • \sf{\omega} = angular frequency = ... rad/s

Step by step :

\sf{\omega = \frac{\theta}{t}}

\sf{\omega = \frac{2,000 \pi}{54.9}}

\boxed{\sf{\omega \approx 36.43 \pi \: rad/s}}

<h3>Conclusion :</h3>

So, the angular frequency of the blades approximately 36.43π rad/s.

8 0
2 years ago
The spring of a spring gun has force constant k = 400 N/m and negligible mass. The spring is compressed 6.00 cm and a ball with
nikdorinn [45]

Answer:

A) v = 6.93 m/s

B) v = 4.9 m/s

C) x_m = 0.015m

D) v_max = 5.2 m/s

Explanation:

We are given;

x = 6 cm = 0.06 m

k = 400 N

m = 0.03 kg

F = 6N

A) from work energy law, work dome by the spring on ball which now became a kinetic energy is;

Ws = K.E = ½kx²

Similarly, kinetic energy of ball is;

K.E = ½mv²

So, equating both equations, we have;

½kx² = ½mv²

Making v the subject gives;

v = √(kx²/m)

Plugging in the relevant values to give;

v = √((400 × 0.06²)/0.03)

v = √48

v = 6.93 m/s

B) If there is friction, the total work is;

Ws = ½kx² - - - (1)

Work of the ball is;

Wb = KE + Wf

So, Wb = ½mv² + fx - - - (2)

Combining both equations, we have;

½mv² + fx = ½kx²

Plugging in the relevant values, we have;

(½ × 0.03 × v²) + (6 × 0.06) = ½ × 400 × 0.06²

0.015v² + 0.36 = 0.72

0.015v² = 0.72 - 0.36

v² = 0.36/0.015

v = √24

v = 4.9 m/s

C) The speed is greatest where the acceleration stops i.e. where the net force on the ball is zero. (ie spring force matches 6.0N friction)

So, from F = Kx;

(x is measured into barrel from end where F = 0)

Thus; 6.0 = 400x

x_m = 6/400

x_m = 0.015m from the end after traveling 0.045m

D) Initial force on ball = (Kx - F) =

[(400 x 0.06) - 6.0] = 18N

Final force on ball = 0N

Mean Net force on ball = ½(18 + 0)

Mean met force, F_m = 9N

Net Work Done on ball = KE = 9N x 0.045m = 0.405 J

Thus;

½m(v_max)² = 0.405J

(v_max)² = 2 x 0.405/0.03

(v_max)² = 27

v(max) = √27

v_max = 5.2 m/s

6 0
3 years ago
______ is the best way to determine your own correct intensity level.
scZoUnD [109]
<span>Self-monitoring would be the best way to </span><span>determine your own correct intensity level. I hope this helps! <3
</span>
5 0
3 years ago
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