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sergij07 [2.7K]
4 years ago
9

Why is the mechanical advantage of using a single pulley always 1? Assume there’s no friction. A. The input force is in a differ

ent direction than the output force. B. The input force is less than the output force. C. The input force is greater than the output force. D. The input force is equal to the output force.
Physics
2 answers:
RoseWind [281]4 years ago
8 0

Answer:

D) The input force is equal to the output force.

Explanation:

I got this question on a test and this was the right answer

~Please mark as the brainliest :)

STALIN [3.7K]4 years ago
3 0

The answer  is D. The input force is equal to the output force.

I just did test and got it right

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False. Velocity is a vector and is measured in m/s (in SI, anyway).

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F. If the shuttle's period is synchronized with that of Earth's rotation, what is the height of the shuttle? (1 day = 8.64x104s,
oee [108]

Answer:

1.324 × 10⁷ m

Explanation:

The centripetal acceleration, a at that height above the earth equal the acceleration due to gravity, g' at that height, h.

Let R be the radius of the orbit where R = RE + h, RE = radius of earth = 6.4 × 10⁶ m.

We know a = Rω² and g' = GME/R² where ω = angular speed = 2π/T where T = period of rotation = 1 day = 8.64 × 10⁴s (since the shuttle's period is synchronized with that of the Earth's rotation), G = gravitational constant = 6.67 × 10⁻¹¹ Nm²/kg², ME = mass of earth = 6 × 10²⁴ kg. Since a = g', we have

Rω² = GME/R²

R(2π/T)² = GME/R²

R³ = GME(T/2π)²

R = ∛(GME)(T/2π)²

RE + h = ∛(GMET²/4π²)

h = ∛(GMET²/4π²) - RE

substituting the values of the variables, we have

h = ∛(6.67 × 10⁻¹¹ Nm²/kg² × 6 × 10²⁴ kg × (8.64 × 10⁴s)²/4π²) - 6.4 × 10⁶ m

h = ∛(2,987,477 × 10²⁰/4π² Nm²s²/kg) - 6.4 × 10⁶ m

h = ∛75.67 × 10²⁰ m³ - 6.4 × 10⁶ m

h = ∛(7567 × 10¹⁸ m³) - 6.4 × 10⁶ m

h = 19.64 × 10⁶ m - 6.4 × 10⁶ m

h = 13.24 × 10⁶ m

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3 years ago
Please show work : A particle with mass 2.00 μg and a charge of – 200 nC has a velocity of 3000 m/s in the x-direction. There is
irga5000 [103]

Answer:

 x =4.5 10⁴ m

Explanation:

To find the distance that the particle moves we must use the equations of motion in one dimension and to find the acceleration of the particle we will use Newton's second law

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     q = -200 nc (1C / 10 9 nC) = -200 10-9 C

Let's calculate the acceleration

     F = ma

     F = q E

     a = qE / m

     a = -200 10⁻⁹ 1000 / 2.00 10⁻⁶

     a = 1 10² m / s²

Let's use kinematics to find the distance traveled before stopping, where it has zero speed (Vf = 0)

     Vf² = Vo² -2 a x

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This is the distance the particule stop, after this distance in the field accelerates in the opposite direction of the initial

Second part

In this case Newton's second law is applied on the y axis

      F -W = 0

      F = w = mg

      E q = mg

      E = mg / q

      E = 2.00 10⁻⁶ 9.8 / 200 10⁻⁹

      E = 9.8 10⁵ C

       

The direction of the field is such that the force on the particle is up, as the particle has a negative charge, the field must be directed downwards F = qE = (-q) E

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Answer:

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Three balls are in water. Ball 1 floats, with half of it exposed above the water level. Ball 2, with a density less than the den
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Answer:

The magnitude of buoyancy force is equal to that of ball's weight.

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