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SVEN [57.7K]
3 years ago
13

A machine part is undergoing SHM with a frequency of 5.00Hz and amplitude 1.80cm . How long does it take the part to gofrom x=0

to x= -1.80 cm
well i know that x=Acos(ωt)
and

ω=2πf so we have -1.8cm= 1.8cm * cos(2πft)

we end up with -1=cos(2πft) I know that cos(π)=-1so ft =1/2 but if that is true

then I have 5s^-1*t= 1/2 gives t= .1s

not .05s like the book says can anyone help me with the problem I'mhaving.
Physics
1 answer:
kifflom [539]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

0.05 second

Explanation:

frequency, f = 5 H

time period is defined as the reciprocal of the frequency.

T = 1/f = 1/5 = 0.2 s

Amplitude, A = 1.80 cm

Time period is also defined as the time taken to complete one oscillation.

As the particle moves from one extreme position to one extreme position is one forth the time period of the oscillation.

As the particle goes from x = 0 to x = - 1.80 cm, so the time taken by the particle is one forth the time period of the oscillation.

t = t / 4 = 0.2 / 4 = 0.05 second.

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DiKsa [7]

Answer:

The correct answer is "64 J".

Explanation:

The given values are:

Mass,

m = 52 kg

Velocity,

v = 6 m/s

Mechanical energy,

= 1000 J

Now,

The gravitational potential energy will be:

⇒ P.E=1000-\frac{1}{2}mv^2

           =1000-\frac{1}{2}\times 52\times (6)^2

           =1000-26\times 36

           =1000-936

           =64 \ J

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Sam has been working to improve his muscular fitness. He jumps rope and trains with weights. What will most likely be the result
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Increased Bone Density
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8. An unpowered flywheel is slowed by a constant frictional torque. At time t = 0 it has an angular velocity of 200 rad/s. Ten s
allsm [11]

Answer:

a) \omega = 50\,\frac{rad}{s}, b) \omega = 0\,\frac{rad}{s}

Explanation:

The magnitude of torque is a form of moment, that is, a product of force and lever arm (distance), and force is the product of mass and acceleration for rotating systems with constant mass. That is:

\tau = F \cdot r

\tau = m\cdot a \cdot r

\tau = m \cdot \alpha \cdot r^{2}

Where \alpha is the angular acceleration, which is constant as torque is constant. Angular deceleration experimented by the unpowered flywheel is:

\alpha = \frac{170\,\frac{rad}{s} - 200\,\frac{rad}{s} }{10\,s}

\alpha = -3\,\frac{rad}{s^{2}}

Now, angular velocities of the unpowered flywheel at 50 seconds and 100 seconds are, respectively:

a) t = 50 s.

\omega = 200\,\frac{rad}{s} - \left(3\,\frac{rad}{s^{2}} \right) \cdot (50\,s)

\omega = 50\,\frac{rad}{s}

b) t = 100 s.

Given that friction is of reactive nature. Frictional torque works on the unpowered flywheel until angular velocity is reduced to zero, whose instant is:

t = \frac{0\,\frac{rad}{s}-200\,\frac{rad}{s} }{\left(-3\,\frac{rad}{s^{2}} \right)}

t = 66.667\,s

Since t > 66.667\,s, then the angular velocity is equal to zero. Therefore:

\omega = 0\,\frac{rad}{s}

7 0
3 years ago
The velocity of a particle (m = 10 mg, q = –4.0 μC) at t = 0 is 20 m/s in the positive x direction. If the particle moves in a u
kompoz [17]

Answer:

Vf = - 20 m/s ( -ve sign shows that the particle is moving opposite to positive x- direction).

Explanation:

Given:

Vi = 20 m/s, m= 10 mg =1 × 10⁻⁵ kg, q= -4.0 × 10⁻⁶ C , E= 20 N/C. t= 5.0 s

first to find Electric Force

F= Eq = 20 × -4.0 10⁻⁶ C = - 8 × 10⁻⁵ N (-ve sign shows that the field will push the particle opposite to positive x- direction)

We also have F=ma

⇒ a = F/m =  - 8 × 10⁻⁵ N / 10 × 10⁻⁵ kg = -8 m/s² ( -ve sign shows that the particle is accelerated opposite to positive x- direction)

Now according the first equation of Motion.

Vf = Vi + at

Vf = 20 m/s + -8 m/s² × 5 s

Vf= -20 m/s ( -ve sign shows that the particle is moving opposite to positive x- direction)

6 0
3 years ago
The electric field strength E 0 E 0 is measured at a perpendicular distance R R from an infinitely large, thin sheet that contai
IRISSAK [1]

Answer:

same value in R and 2R       E = E₀ = σ / 2ε₀

Explanation:

For this exercise we use Gauss's law

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We define a Gaussian surface with a cylinder with the base being parallel to the load sheet, so the electic field line and the normal line to the base are parallel and the scalar product is reduced to the algebraic product, in the parts the angle is 90º and the dot product is zero

As the sheet has two faces

           2E A = q_{int} /ε₀

The charge inside the cylinder is

           σ = q_{int} / A

           q_{int} = σ A

               

We substitute

           E = σ / 2ε₀

We see that this expression is independent of the distance, so it has the same value in R and 2R

             E = E₀ = σ / 2ε₀

5 0
3 years ago
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