195.638
that's some weird logic but ok
Given that Erica and AAron,are using lottery system to decide who will wash dishes every night.
They put some red and blue power chips and draw each one. If same colour, Aaron will wash and if not same colours Erica will wash
If the game is to be fair, then both should have equal chances of opportunity for washing.
i.e. Probability for Erica washing = Prob of Aaron washing
i.e. P(different chips) = P(same colour chips)
Say there are m red colours and n blue colours.
Both are drawing at the same time.
Hence Prob (getting same colour) = (mC2+nC2)/(m+n)C2
Probfor different colour = mC1+nC1/(m+n)C2
The two would be equal is mC2 +nC2 = m+n
This is possible if mC2 =m and nC2 = n.
Or m = 2+1 =3 and n =3
That for a fair game we must have both colours to be 3.
the answer is 2• 137= 274
Answer:
how can I tell u the answer which out a pic
Step-by-step explanation:
Two fractions equivalent to each: Just divide or multiply both top AND bottom by the same number.<span>
5/6: 10/12 OR 15/18
15/30: 5/10 OR 1/2
45/60: 8/12 OR 4/6
Rewrite each pair or fractions with common denominator: Find the difference between the two bottom numbers, and multiply top and bottom number.
5/8 and 3/4: 4X2=8, 3X2=6. So, 5/8 and 6/8.
2/5 and 1/2: 2/5 and 2.5/5
9/9 and 5/7: 9/9 and ~5.7/9
Rewrite each in simple form: Find greatest common factor and divide.
9/54: 1/6
20/40: 1/2
100/110: 10/11
Are these fractions equivalent?
No. 5/1 and 5/5 are, because they are both 5 wholes. 1/5 is not because it is a fifth of a whole.
In what situation can you use multiplication to find equivalent fractions?
I'm sorry but I do not understand this question.
</span>Source(s):<span>I hope I helped, seeing as I have graduated with a math degree.</span>
