Answer:
I just noticd i dont speak this launguage
Explanation:
Speed = distance/time
speed= 122÷27=4.52m/s (3sf)
Answer:
0.96 m
Explanation:
First, convert km/h to m/s.
162.3 km/h × (1000 m/km) × (1 hr / 3600 s) = 45.08 m/s
Now find the time it takes to move 20 m horizontally.
Δx = v₀ t + ½ at²
20 m = (45.08 m/s) t + ½ (0 m/s²) t²
t = 0.4436 s
Finally, find how far the ball falls in that time.
Δy = v₀ t + ½ at²
Δy = (0 m/s) (0.4436 s) + ½ (-9.8 m/s²) (0.4436 s)²
Δy = -0.96 m
The ball will have fallen 0.96 meters.
Consider that the bar magnet has a magnetic field that is acting around it, which will imply that there is a change in the magnetic flux through the loop whenever it moves towards the conducting loop. This could be described as an induction of the electromotive Force in the circuit from Faraday's law.
In turn by Lenz's law, said electromotive force opposes the change in the magnetic flux of the circuit. Therefore, there is a force that opposes the movement of the bar magnet through the conductor loop. Therefore, the bar magnet does not suffer free fall motion.
The bar magnet does not move as a freely falling object.
Answer:
Δ KE = 249158.6 kJ
Explanation:
given data
Truck mass M = 1560 Kg
Truck initial speed, u = 28 m/s
mass of car m = 1070 Kg
initial speed of car u1 = 0 m/s
solution
first we get here final speed by using conservation of momentum that is express as
Mu = (M+m) V .......................1
put here value we get
1560 × 28 = (1560 + 1070 ) V
solve it we get
final speed V = 16.60 m/s
and
Change in kinetic energy will be here
Δ KE = 
.................2
put here value and we get
Δ KE = 
solve it we get
Δ KE = 249158.6 kJ
