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sladkih [1.3K]
3 years ago
12

On January 1, 2021, Nath-Langstrom Services, Inc., a computer software training firm, leased several computers under a two-year

operating lease agreement from ComputerWorld Leasing, which routinely finances equipment for other firms at an annual interest rate of 4%. The contract calls for four rent payments of $12,500 each, payable semiannually on June 30 and December 31 each year. The computers were acquired by Computerworld at a cost of $95,000 and were expected to have a useful life of Five years with no residual value. Both firms record amortization and depreciation semiannually. (FV of $1, PV of $1. FVA of $1, PVA of $1, FVAD of $1 and PVAD of $1) (Use appropriate factor(s) from the tables provided.) Required: Prepare the appropriate entries for both the lessee and the lessor from the beginning of the lease through the end of 2021. (If no entry is required for a transaction/event, select "No journal entry required" in the first account field. (Round your intermediate calculations and final answers to the nearest whole dollar.)

Business
1 answer:
lesantik [10]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Check explanation

Explanation:

Amortization is an accounting technique or method that is used to from time to time lessen the book/record value of a loan or intangible asset over a particular period of time, while Depreciation is an accounting method or technique used for allocating the price of a physical or tangible asset over its useful life or its life expectancy.

The step by step explanation to the question can be seen in the attachment below.

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Managing proactively instead of reactively is an example of which of the following
Alex73 [517]

Answer:

it is an example of minimizing the risk of business

Explanation:

There is a difference between managing proactively and creatively.

Managing creatively only carried out after the company experience some sort of bad circumstances. IT is used to fix the situation.

Managing proactively on the other hand is carried out on a regular basis, even before any bad circumstances happen. This type of management will prevent the company in experiencing unnecessary damage and will be beneficial for the company in the.  long run, This will  minimize the risk that might occur to the company.

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
In a period of falling interest rates, a bond dealer would engage in which of the following activities?I Raise prices in interde
vredina [299]

Answer:

C. I, II, III

Explanation:

In a period of falling interest rates, a bond dealer would engage in all of the following activities except for IV. Therefore, a dealer would raise his quoted price in Bloomberg. If the dealer has an appreciated bond that he wishes to sell, he can place ''Request for Bids'' for those bonds in Bloomberg. The dealer may buy bond the he has previously sold short to limit losses due to rising price. To protect existing short position against the rising price, the dealer will buy call options, not put options. Put options are used in protecting existing long position from falling price.

8 0
3 years ago
The measure used to report price changes at the wholesale level is the:
ivanzaharov [21]

The measure used to report price changes at the wholesale level is the <u>"Producer Price Index (PPI)".</u>


The producer price index (PPI) is a group of indexes that estimates the normal change in offering costs gotten by household makers of merchandise and enterprises after some time. The PPI estimates value changes from the point of view of the seller and varies from the buyer value record (CPI), which estimates value changes from the buyer's viewpoint. The PPI thinks about three regions of generation: industry-based, product based and item based last interest transitional interest. It was known as the discount value file, or WPI, until 1978.  

5 0
3 years ago
A lot of points
Pie

Answer:

The answer is C

Explanation:

6 0
2 years ago
On January 3, 2014, Trusty Delivery Service purchased a truck at a cost of $90,000. Before placing the truck in service, Trusty
likoan [24]

Answer:

Accumulated depreciation for Years 1 - 5 under:

  • the Straight-line method is $90,000.
  • the Units-of-production method is $90,000.
  • the Double-declining-balance method is $86,170.

Explanation:

The total cost of the asset is $90,000 + $3,000 + $1,500 + $4,500 = $99,000, since all the other costs were directly attributable cost and were necessary to bring the asset to usable form.

  • The painting is capitalized because it is the first time Trust Delivery would be using the asset, otherwise it would have been expended
  • Overhauling cost can be regarded as a separate asset, if we were provided with different useful lives - componentization.

Under straight-line method, depreciation expense is (cost - residual value) / No of years = ($99,000 - $9,000) / 5 years = $18,000 yearly depreciation expense.

Accumulated depreciation for Years 1 to 5 is $18,000 x 5 years $90,000.

The unit-of-production method is used when the asset value closely relates to the units of output it is able to produce. It is expressed with the formula below:

(Original Cost - Salvage value) / Estimated production capacity x Units/year

At Year 1, depreciation expense (DE) is: ($99,000 - $9,000) / 100,000 miles x 22,500 miles = $20,250/year

Accumulated depreciation for the first four years is $20,250 x 4 years = $81,000.

At Year 5, depreciation = $90,000 / 100,000 miles x 10,000 miles = $9,000

Note that this depreciation method results in higher depreciation charge when the asset is heavily used, at this time, it was in Years 1 - 4.

Accumulated depreciation expense for Years 1 to 5, under this method, is $90,000 (addition of first four years and the Year 5).

The double-declining method is otherwise known as the reducing balance method and is given by the formula below:

Double declining method = 2 X SLDP X BV

SLDP = straight-line depreciation percentage

BV = Book value

SLDP is 100%/5years = 20%, then 20% multiplied by 2 to give 40%

At Year 1, 40% X $99,000 = $39,600

At Year 2, 40% X $59,400 ($99,000 - $39,600) = $23,760

At Year 3, 40% X $35,640 ($59,400 - $23,760) = $14,256

At Year 4, 40% X $21,384 ($35,640 - $14,256) = $8,554 approximately (the depreciation expense would stop at this stage since the amount falls below the residual value).

Accumulated depreciation expense for Years 1 to 4, under this method, is $86,170 (addition of all the yearly depreciation).

7 0
3 years ago
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